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Browsing Category " criminology "

Law Enforcement Administration Review Questions 3

1. The book of records, public records, which every police station/officer is mandated to possess for future reference.

A. Police blotter

B. Police report

C. Police handbook

D. Blotter


Answer: A



2. S.M.E.A.C in arrest abbreviation, what is M.E.A?

A. Management, Exercise, Action

B. Mission, Execution, Administration/Equipment

C. Must, Exercise, Action

D. Management, Execution, Administration


Answer: B



3. The National flag shall also be flown at half-mast during calamities or tragedies as ordered by the ...

A. Congress

B. Office of the President

C. DILG Secretary

D. AFP Chief


Answer: B



4. Clear Zone of ________ must be established between the perimeter barrier and structure within the protected areas.

A. 20 feet or more 

B. 40 feet or more 

C. 30 feet or more

D. 50 feet or more



5. Before private security agencies render security services to their clients, there must be a contract that binds them, which is called

A. Contract service

B. Service contract

C. Security contract

D. Security service contract 


Answer: D



6. Which of the following is a qualification for the operator or manager of a security agency?

A. Commissioned officer of AFP or PNP, inactive or retired

B. At least 25 years of age

C. Filipino citizen

D. All of them 


Answer: D



7. A security force maintained and operated by any private company for its own security requirements only.

A. Insular security force

B. Company security force

C. Government security unit

D. Private security unit 


Answer: B



8. A person who offers or renders personal services to watch or secure a residence, business establishment, or both is

A. Watchman

B. Security guard

C. B only

D. B and A 


Answer: D



9. Include all the security measures designed to prevent unsuitable individuals or persons of doubtful loyalty to the government from gaining access to classified matters or to any security facility and to prevent appointment or retention as employees of such individuals.

A. Security personnel

B. Employee security

C. Personnel security

D. Both A and C 


Answer: C



10. It is an inquiry into the character, reputation, discretion, and loyalty of an individual to determine a person's suitability to be given security clearance.

A. BI

B. LAC

C. NAC

D. PSI 


Answer: D



11. Consists of the investigation of the background of an individual, but is limited only to some of the circumstances of his personal life that are deemed pertinent to the investigation.

A. PSI

B. PBI

C. CBI

D. BI 


Answer: B



12. A thorough and complete investigation of all or some of the circumstances or aspects of a person's life is conducted.

A. PSI

B. PBI

C. CBI 

D. BI 


Answer: D



13. Among the following, which is the least expensive and least secure personnel control identification system?

A. Multiple pass system

B. Group pass and badge system

C. Spot magnetized identification pass

D. Single pass or badge system 


Answer: D



14. Factors considered in background investigation, except:

A. Integrity

B. Character

C. Personal prestige 

D. Loyalty 


Answer: C



15. Motives that cause people to be disloyal

A. Character

B. Revenge

C. Moral

D. Reputation 


Answer: B



16. Weakness that makes people susceptible to pressure

A. Jealousy

B. Weakness of character

C. Close relative in a foreign land

D. All of them 


Answer: D



17. A security unit maintained and operated by any government entity.

A. Insular security force

B. Company security force

C. Government security unit

D. Private security agency 


Answer: C



18. Consists of the investigation of the background of a person, particularly all the circumstances of his personal life

A. PSI

B. PBI

C. CBI

D. BI 


Answer: C



19. Any person, association, partnership, firm, or private corporation that contracts, recruits, trains, furnishes, or posts any security guards to do its functions.

A. Insular security force

B. Company security force

C. Government security unit

D. Private security agency 


Answer: D



20. Shall be responsible to the detachment commander as far as his shift is concerned.

A. Officer in charge

B. Shift in charge

C. Security guard on duty

D. Assistant detachment commander 


Answer: B



21. Before a security guard can practice his profession, he shall possess a valid security license. What is this license?

A. Firearm license

B. License to operate

C. Driver's license

D. Security guard license 


Answer: D



22. How many firearms issued for every two guards employed by the security agency is allowed by law?

A. 4

B. 3

C. 2

D. 1 


Answer: D



23. Firearms of security agencies should be covered with a firearms license issued by the PNP through its Firearm Explosive Division under the civil security group, renewable every

A. 4 years

B. 3 years

C. 2 years

D. 1 year 


Answer: D



24. The aspect of security that involves the application of security measures for the protection and safeguarding of classified information

A. Top secret

B. Information security

C. Personnel security

D. Documents security 


Answer: D



25. Refers to the assigned information by one of the four classification categories

A. Reclassify

B. Classified

C. Declassify

D. Security clearance 


Answer: B



26. Refers to the administrative determination that an individual is eligible for access to classified matter.

A. Reclassify

B. Classified

C. Declassify

D. Security clearance 


Answer: D



27. This means loss of security, which results from an unauthorized person obtaining knowledge of classified matter.

A. Vulnerability 

B. Criticality

C. probability

D. Compromise 


Answer: D



28. These are information and material, the unauthorized disclosure of which would cause exceptionally grave damage to the nation, politically, economically, or from a security aspect, this category is reserved for the nation's closest secret and is to be used with great reserve.

A. Restricted matters

B. Secret matters

C. Confidential matters

D. Top secret matters 


Answer: D



29. This information and material, the authorized disclosure of which would endanger national security, cause serious injury to the interest or prestige of the nation or of any governmental activity, or would be of great advantage to a foreign nation.

A. Restricted matters

B. Secret matters

C. Confidential matters

D. Top secret matters 


Answer: B



30. This information and material, the unauthorized disclosure of which, while not endangering the national security, would be prejudicial to the interest or prestige of the nation or any government activity, would cause administrative embarrassment or unwarranted injury to an individual, or would be of advantage to a foreign nation.

A. Restricted matters

B. Secret matters

C. Confidential matters

D. Top secret matters 


Answer: C



31. It is information that in some special way relates to the status or activities of the possessor and over which the possessor asserts ownership.

A. Transmission security

B. Trade secret

C. Patents

D. Proprietary information 


Answer: D



32. It may be a formula for a chemical compound, a process of manufacturing, treating, or preserving materials, a pattern for a machine or device, or a list of customers.

A. Transmission security

B. Trade secret

C. Patents

D. Proprietary information 


Answer: B



33. It is the protection resulting from the application of various measures that prevent or delay the enemy or unauthorized persons from gaining information through communication.

A. Transmission security

B. Cryptographic security

C. Communication Security

D. All of the above 


Answer: C



34. That component of communication security results from the provisions of technically sound cryptosystems and their proper use.

A. Transmission security

B. Cryptographic security

C. Communication Security

D. All of the above 


Answer: B



35. A system that uses words as the smallest element.

A. Transposition system

B. Code

C. Concealment

D. Cipher 


Answer: B



36. A system that manipulates 1,2 or 3 characters at a time.

A. Transposition system

B. Code

C. Concealment

D. Cipher 


Answer: D



37. It is the potential damage or loss of an asset.

A. Adversary

B. Risk

C. Security hazard

D. Criticality 


Answer: B



38. It is the impact of a loss as measured in financial terms.

A. Adversary

B. Risk

C. Security hazard

D. Criticality 


Answer: D



39. Eliminating or removing the risk totally from the business, government, or industrial environment for which the risk manager has responsibility.

A. Risk self-assumption

B. Risk spreading

C. Risk avoidance

D. Risk avoidance 


Answer: C



40. It is an act of spying.

A. Saboteur

B. Espionage

C. pilferer

D. Sabotage 


Answer: B



41. It is one of the most annoying and common human hazards that security has to deal with.

A. Casual pilferage

B. Systematic pilferage

C. Pilferage

D. None of the above 


Answer: C



42. One who steals with pre-conceived plans and always takes any or all types of items or supplies for economic gain.

A. Casual pilferage

B. Systematic pilferage

C. Pilferage

D. None of the above 


Answer: B



43. What date is the Republic Act No. 5487, or the private security agency law, passed?

A. June 13, 1999

B. June 13, 1969

C. June 7, 2009

D. June 31, 1969 


Answer: B



44. A natural hazard or act of god.

A. Calamity

B. Phenomenon

C. Disaster

D. Force majeure 


Answer: D



45. A restricted area where visitors are limited in movement and are usually escorted.

A. Exclusive area

B. Limited area

C. Restricted area

D. Protected area 


Answer: B



46. A structure placed above a vertical fence to increase protection from intruders.

A. Guardhouse

B. Clear zone

C. Tower guard

D. Top guard 


Answer: D



47. A conference similar to an entrance conference is only done after the completion of the security survey.

A. Entrance conference

B. Briefing

C. Debriefing

D. Exit conference 


Answer: D



48. It is the loss that would be sustained if a given target or combination of targets were totally removed, destroyed, or both.

A. Risk Reduction

B. Probable maximum loss

C. Risk transfer

D. Possible maximum loss 


Answer: D



49. Refers to the amount of loss a target would be likely to sustain through theft and robbery.

A. Risk Reduction

B. Probable maximum loss

C. Risk transfer

D. Possible maximum loss 


Answer: B



50. A term used in England for lock pickers, safe crackers, and penetrators of restricted rooms or areas.

A. Superman

B. Peterpan

C. Batman 

D. Peterman 


Answer: D



51. The badge or pass coded for authorization to enter specific areas is issued to an employee who keeps it in his possession until his authorization terminates.

A. Pass system

B. Pass exchange system

C. Single-pass system

D. Multi-pass system 


Answer: C



52. Company-owned alarm system with a unit in the nearest police station, so that in case of need, a direct call is possible.

A. Auxiliary alarm

B. Proprietary system

C. Local alarm system

D. Central station station system 


Answer: A



53. The system consists of ringing up a visual or audible alarm system near the object to be protected.

A. Auxiliary alarm

B. Proprietary system

C. Local alarm system

D. Central station system 


Answer: C



54. The required age for the grant of a waiver of the age requirement for initial appointment in the PNP is

A. not below 25 nor over 35 years of age

B. not below 20 nor over 35 years of age   

C. less than 25 but not more than 32 years of age

D. more than 22 but less than 32 years of age


Answer: B



55. Anybody who will enter the PNP service without a baccalaureate degree shall be given a maximum period of

A. 3 years to comply with the education qualification

B. 4 years to comply with the education qualification 

C. 5 years to comply with the education qualification

D. 6 years to comply with the education qualification 


Answer: B



56. Under RA 8551, any PNP personnel who have not been promoted for a continuous service period shall be retired or separated if the said period of non-promotion is gained within:

A. 20 yrs

B. 10 yrs   

C. 18 months

D. none of these 


Answer: B



57. The power to direct or oversee the day-to-day functions of police investigation of crime, crime  prevention activities, and traffic control by the rules and regulations promulgated by the Commission is

A. Employment

B. Planning

C. Operational Supervision

D. Deployment


Answer: C



58. Governors and mayors, upon having been elected and having qualified as such, are automatically deputized as representatives of the  

A. NAPOLCOM

B. DND

C. PLEB   

D. None of the above


Answer: A



59. As a police officer, he/she should live a decent and virtuous life to serve as an example to others. This statement is part of the:

A. PNP Code of Covenant

B. Policeman’s Code

C. Police Officer’s Creed

D. All of the above


Answer: C



60. A Private Security Agency shall not employ more than How many private security professionals?

A. 1,000

B. 2,000

C. 3,000

D. 4,000


Answer: B



61. A person can escape from the scene of the accident on one of the following grounds:

A. The offense committed is serious

B. bringing the person to your custody

C. Bring the suspect before the court to answer a charge of violation

D. if the person is in imminent danger


Answer: D



62. In arresting the traffic violator or when it involves arrest due to a traffic violation, the following procedures are followed, except:

A. Bring the suspended person before the court

B. Detention of the arrested person may take place

C. arrest can be effected even without a warrant

D. impose the probable penalty that might be imposed  


Answer: D  



63. A single uninterrupted line of authority represented by box lines of the organizational chart should run in order by rank from top command to the level of the organization.

A. organizational control

B. scalar chain

C. administrative control

D. span of control


Answer:  B



64. The amount and nature of the demands of the police service         

A. Clientele         

B. Purpose         

C. Time         

D. Process 


Answer: C



65. The PNP has a program that ensures the deployment of policemen in busy and crime-prone areas. This is called          

A. patrol deployment program          

B. roving patrol program          

C. patrol and visibility program          

D. police patrol program


Answer: C



66. All regional appointments of commissioned PNP officers commence with the rank of:            

A. Police Master Sergeant         

B. Police Lieutenant         

C. Police Staff Sergeant         

D. Police Captain


Answer: B



67. In busy and thickly populated commercial streets like those in Divisoria, police patrol is very necessary.  Since there are several types of patrol, which of the following will you recommend?          

A. Horse patrol          

B. Mobile patrol          

C. Foot patrol          

D. Helicopter patrol


Answer: C



68. It is the product resulting from the collection, evaluation, analysis, and interpretation of all available information that concerns one or more aspects of criminal activity and which is immediately or potentially significant to policy planning.          

A. Investigation                  

B. Information          

C. Data          

D. intelligence


Answer: D



69. These are work programs of line divisions which related to the nature and extent of the workload and the availability of resources.          

A. administrative plan                      

B. operational plan          

C. strategic plan          

D. tactical plan


Answer: B



70. It is the premier educational institution for the police, fire, and jail personnel.          

A. Philippine Military Academy          

B. Development Academy of the Philippines          

C. Philippine College of Criminology           

D. Philippine Public Safety College 


Answer: D



71. A SOCO crew, which is assigned to a team, usually consists of           

A. a driver, specialist, and intelligence agent          

B. a driver, evidence custodian, and traffic man          

C. a driver, a traffic man, and a recorder          

D. a driver, team leader, and technicians


Answer: D



72. An industrial complex must establish its first line of physical defense.  It must have           

A. the building itself                      

B. perimeter barriers          

C. communication barriers          

D. window barriers 


Answer: B



73. Highest-ranked enlisted personnel of the PNP.

A. Police Staff Sergeant

B. Police Corporal

C. Police Chief Master Sergeant

D. Police Executive Master Sergeant


Answer: D



74. All of the following are members of the People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB), EXCEPT:       

A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order Council from among the respected members of the community.      

B. Any barangay Captain of the city/municipality concerned chosen by the association of the Barangay Captains.          

C. Any member of the Sangguniang Panglungsod/Pambayan          

D. A bar member chosen by the Integrated Bar of the Philippines (IBP)


Answer: D



75. It is the circumspect inspection of a place to determine its suitability for a particular operational purpose.          

A. Inspection                  

B. Surveillance          

C. Survey          

D. Casing                                                 


Answer: C



76. In the civil service system, merit and fitness are the primary considerations in the           

A. two-party system              

B. evaluation system          

C. promotional system          

D. spoils the system                                       


Answer: C



77. The compulsory retirement for PNP non-uniformed personnel shall be upon the attainment of 

A. 55 years of age

B. 56 years of age

C. 60 years of age

D. 65 years of age                                                                            


Answer: D



78. It is a natural or man-made structure or physical device that is capable of restricting, determining, or delaying illegal access to an installation.          

A. alarm                              

B. wall              

C. barrier          

D. hazard                                                 


Answer: C



79. What form of intelligence is involved when information is obtained without the knowledge of the person against whom the information or documents may be used, or if the information is clandestinely acquired?          

A.    covert                           

B.    overt              

C.    active          

D.    underground                                        


Answer: A



80. The provincial Governor shall choose the provincial Director from a list of _______ eligible recommended by the Regional Director, preferably from the same province, city, or municipality.             

A.    three (3)              

B.    five (5)          

C.    four (4)                                                    

D.    Two (2)                                              


Answer: A



81. Republic Act 6975 provides that, on average nationwide, the manning levels of the PNP shall be approximately by a police-to-population ratio of:          

A. one (1) policeman for every 700 inhabitants.          

B. one (1) policeman for every 1,500 inhabitants.          

C. one (1) policeman for every 500 inhabitants.          

D. one (1) policeman for every one thousand (1,000) inhabitants.                                        


Answer: C



82. In disaster control operations, there is a need to establish a _______ where telephones or any means of communication shall ensure open lines of communication.          

A. command post                      

B. operations center          

C. field room  

D. None of these                                               


Answer: A



83. A claim for permanent total disability or death benefits of a PNP member shall be filed with the Office of the 

A. Any of the regional offices of the NAPOLCOM.

B. Chief PNP

C. PNP Regional Director

D. PNP Legal Office


Answer: A



84. The cheapest form of police patrol.          

A.    Bicycle Patrol          

B.    Foot Patrol          

C.    Motorcycle Patrol          

D.    Helicopter Patrol                                   


Answer: B



85. The budget is a _______ in terms of expenditure requirements.          

A. tactical plan    

B. financial plan              

C. work plan        

D. control plan                                             


Answer: B



86. Who among the following disciplinary authorities may impose demotion in rank as a punishment?

A. Chief of Police

B. PLEB

C. Mayor

D. Director of City Police Office


Answer: B


87. It is a police function that serves as the backbone of the police service. In all types of police stations, there is a specific unit assigned to undertake this function, given its importance.          

A. vice control                      

B. criminal investigation          

C. traffic management          

D. patrol                                                     


Answer: D



88. It is the weakest link in the security chain.          

A. Managers                          

B. Barriers          

C. Personnel          

D. inspections                                              


Answer: C



89. Who among the following has summary disciplinary powers over errant police members?          

A. District Director                      

B. Provincial Director          

C. Chief of Police          

D. Chief, PNP                                             


Answer: D



90. Which of the following is considered the most important factor in formulating an effective patrol strategy?          

A. Training of the station commander          

B. adequacy of resources of the police station          

C. rank of the patrol commander          

D. Salary rates of police personnel    

            

Answer: B



91. The investigation and hearing before the administrative disciplinary authorities and the IAS shall

be 

A. summary in nature 

B. dilatory in nature

C. exhaustive in nature

D. lengthy in nature


Answer: D



92. The father of organized military espionage was:          

A. Akbar

B. Alexander the Great             

C. Genghis Khan          

D. Frederick the Great  

                             

Answer: D



93. Which of the following is the most common reason why an informer can give information to the police?          

A. wants to be known to the policeman          

B. monetary reward          

C. as a good citizen          

D. revenge                                                 


Answer: B



94. To improve delegation, the following must be done, EXCEPT:          

A. Establish objectives and standards          

B. Count the number of supervisors          

C. require completed work          

D. Define authority and responsibility

           

Answer: C



95. It includes everything that is done contrary to justice, honesty, modesty, or good morals;

A. Moral Turpitude

B. Fraud

C. Morality

D. Unlawful


Answer: A



96. The period required by law to perform a specific act. 

A. Reglementary Period 

B. Mandatory Period

C. Compulsory period

D. None of these


Answer: A



97. You are the Patrol Supervisor for the morning shift. You don’t have enough men to cover all the patrol beats. Which of the following will you implement?          

A. assign roving mobile patrol with no foot patrol          

B. Assign mobile patrols only in strategic places          

C. Maintain your patrolmen at the station and just wait for calls for police assistance          

D. Assign foot patrol in congested and busy patrol beats, but assign a roving mobile patrol to cover beats that are not covered by foot patrol.             


Answer: B



98. The term used for the object of surveillance is a subject, while the investigator conducting the surveillance is:          

A. rabbit                              

B. surveillant          

C. traffic enforcement          

D. patrol                                                     


Answer: A



99. A PNP member or officer may be summarily dismissed from the service when absent without official leave for a continuous period of how many calendar days?

A. 15 days

B. 30 days

C. 60 days

D. 180 days


Answer: B



100. The National Appellate Board shall be composed of how many regular commissioners?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5 


Answer: C


Criminology Review Questions 1




Forensic Photography Review Questions 1

Forensic Photography Review Questions 1


1. What is photography?

A. The process of drawing with ink

B. The art and science of recording images using light

C. The process of making sculptures

D. The art of painting on canvas


Answer: B. Photography is the art and science of recording images using light. "Photography" literally translates to "drawing with light" (photo = light, graphy = drawing).



2. Which of the following is the most essential element in photography?

A. Color

B. Film

C. Light

D. Paper


Answer: C. Light is the fundamental element required to produce a photograph. Without light, a camera cannot record an image.



3. Which camera component controls the amount of light entering the lens?

A. Viewfinder

B. Aperture

C. Flash

D. Memory card


Answer: B. The aperture regulates the amount of light entering the camera. The aperture is the adjustable opening inside the lens that controls the volume of light entering.



4. What is the primary function of the shutter?

A. Focus the image

B. Store photographs

C. Control the duration of light exposure

D. Increase image color


Answer: C. The shutter determines how long light reaches the image sensor or film. The shutter acts as a curtain that opens and closes to control the duration (time) of the exposure.



5. Which camera setting affects the sensor's sensitivity to light?

A. White balance

B. ISO

C. Zoom

D. Contrast


Answer: B. ISO controls the camera sensor's sensitivity to light. Higher ISO values make the sensor more sensitive to available light (though it introduces digital noise/grain).



6. Which photographic principle refers to the sharpness of subjects at different distances?

A. Exposure

B. Perspective

C. Depth of field

D. Saturation


Answer: C. Depth of field is the range of acceptable sharpness in a photograph. Depth of field (DOF) determines how much of the image from foreground to background appears in focus.



7. Which factor is commonly known as the "third" element of the exposure triangle, along with aperture and shutter speed?

A. White balance

B. ISO

C. Focus

D. Flash power


Answer: B. ISO completes the exposure triangle with aperture and shutter speed. Aperture, shutter speed, and ISO together form the exposure triangle.



8. What is the primary purpose of focusing on photography?

A. Increase image brightness

B. Make the subject appear sharp and clear

C. Reduce image size

D. Add special effects


Answer: B. Proper focusing ensures the subject appears sharp. Focusing aligns the lens elements to make your target subject clear and sharp.



9. Which type of lens provides the widest angle of view?

A. Telephoto lens

B. Macro lens

C. Wide-angle lens

D. Standard lens


Answer: C. A wide-angle lens captures a broader field of view. Wide-angle lenses (and ultra-wides/fisheyes) capture a broad field of view compared to standard or telephoto lenses.



10. Which principle of composition divides the image into nine equal sections to help place the subject?

A. Leading lines

B. Framing

C. Rule of Thirds

D. Symmetry


Answer: C. The Rule of Thirds is a basic composition guideline used to create balanced and visually appealing photographs. The Rule of Thirds uses a 3x3 grid (creating nine equal sections) to guide subject placement along gridlines or intersections.


Forensic Chemistry and Toxicology Review Questions 1

Personal Identification Techniques Review Questions 1

 Personal Identification Techniques Review Questions 1


1. In the classification of a loop pattern, the examiner draws an imaginary line between the core and the delta and counts every ridge crossing this line. If the line touches a ridge precisely at its point of bifurcation, how many ridges should be counted?

A. One ridge

B. Two ridges

C. No ridge

D. Three ridges


Correct Answer: B. Two ridges

Explanation: Under standard fingerprint rules for ridge counting, if the imaginary line crosses or touches a bifurcation, both branches of the fork are counted, resulting in a count of two.


In fingerprint classification, when the imaginary line touches a bifurcation, both branches are counted. That’s why the ridge count is two, not one.



2. An examiner is analyzing a Plain Whorl pattern. While tracing the ridge originating from the left delta toward the right delta, the ridge suddenly terminates. What is the correct procedure for the examiner to follow?

A. Stop the tracing and classify it as a Meeting Whorl

B. Drop to the next ridge immediately below it and continue tracing

C. Move to the ridge immediately above it and continue tracing

D. Abort the tracing and perform ridge counting instead


Correct Answer: B. Drop to the next ridge immediately below it and continue tracing.

Explanation: In ridge tracing, when a ridge being traced ends or terminates, the examiner must drop down to the next continuous ridge directly below it and continue tracing toward the right delta.



3. When taking fingerprint samples from a suspect, the booking officer spreads a small amount of fingerprint ink across a glass slab. What is the main objective of using a roller to perform "slab rolling"?

A. To dry the ink quickly before application

B. To remove dirt and skin debris from the slab

C. To create a thin, uniform, and even film of ink

D. To permanently stain the glass for measurement consistency


Correct Answer: C. To create a thin, uniform, and even film of ink.

Explanation: Slab rolling ensures that the ink is evenly distributed across the surface. If the ink is too thick, it will blot the ridges; if it is too thin, the print will be faint.


4. In completing a fingerprint card, what is the primary purpose of recording the "plain impressions" or "plain impressing" at the bottom of the card?

A. To provide a backup in case the rolled impressions are destroyed by fire

B. To serve as a check to verify that the rolled prints were taken in their proper sequence

C. To measure the exact width of the suspect's palm

D. To capture the ridge details of the second phalanges


Correct Answer: B. To serve as a check to verify that the rolled prints were taken in their proper sequence.

Explanation: Plain impressions are taken simultaneously without rolling. They serve as a control mechanism to ensure that the individual rolled fingers were not accidentally placed in the wrong boxes on the card.



5. During the examination of a whorl pattern, a criminologist performs ridge tracing. The ridge traced from the left delta passes inside or above the right delta, and there are 4 intervening ridges counted between the tracing ridge and the right delta. What is the correct sub-classification of this whorl?

A. Outer Whorl (O)

B. Meeting Whorl (M)

C. Inner Whorl (I)

D. Central Pocket Loop Whorl


Correct Answer: C. Inner Whorl (I)

Explanation: If the ridge being traced passes inside (above) the right delta and there are three (3) or more intervening ridges, it is classified as an Inner Whorl (I). If it passed outside (below) with 3 or more ridges, it would be Outer (O). If there are 0, 1, or 2 intervening ridges, it is Meeting (M).



6. In the study of fingerprint identification, what is the technical term for the science of fingerprinting?

A. Poroscopy

B. Podoscopy

C. Chiroscopy

D. Dactyloscopy


Answer: D, Derived from the Greek words 'dactyl' (finger) and 'skopein' (to examine), this is the standard term for fingerprint identification. Dactyloscopy is the technical term for fingerprint identification. 


Poroscopy refers to the study of pores, podoscopy to feet, and chiroscopy to hands.


Forensic Photography Reviewer

Therapeutic Modalities Review Questions 1

 Therapeutic Modalities Review Questions 1


1. In a Therapeutic Community, what do we call the treatment environment that helps people support one another's personal growth?

A. Peer group approach

B. Self-help organization

C. Inmate classification

D. Community reintegration


Correct Answer: A. Peer group approach

The TC model is based on the peer group acting as the main agent of change.



2. What is the primary focus of Therapeutic Modalities in correctional facilities?

A. Enforcing maximum punishment

B. Learning and relearning behavioral skills

C. Segregating habitual offenders

D. Imposing physical discipline


Correct Answer: B. Learning and relearning behavioral skills

TMP emphasizes behavior modification and acquiring prosocial behaviors.



3. Which type of counseling is characterized by the therapist showing unconditional positive regard to the client?

A. Cognitive therapy

B. Reality therapy

C. Person-centered therapy

D. Behavior therapy


Correct Answer: C. Person-centered therapy

Carl Rogers' person-centered therapy is characterized by unconditional positive regard.



4. In a Therapeutic Community, what term is used when an inmate corrects a peer who commits a minor infraction or displays a lapse in awareness?

A. Penal sanction

B. Expulsion

C. Peer confrontation

D. Reflection


Correct Answer: C. Peer confrontation

A "pull-up" or peer confrontation is used to immediately correct minor inappropriate behaviors.



5. Which of the following is NOT a core component of Therapeutic Modalities?

A. Moral, spiritual, and values formation

B. Individual and group counseling

C. Solitary confinement

D. Victim-offender mediation


Correct Answer: C. Solitary confinement

Solitary confinement is a security measure, not a therapeutic modality.



6. What model operates on the principle that the therapeutic community itself acts as the primary change agent?

A. Medical model

B. Therapeutic Community (TC) Modality

C. Custodial model

D. Retributive justice model


Correct Answer: B. Therapeutic Community (TC) Modality

The TC model views the community itself as the primary therapeutic agent.



7. Which rehabilitation program is primarily used for drug offenders to maintain sobriety after release from a correctional facility?

A. Work placement

B. Alcoholics Anonymous (AA)

C. Environmental ecology

D. Sports fitness


Correct Answer: B. Alcoholics Anonymous (AA)

AA is widely used as an aftercare and relapse-prevention program, alongside similar support groups such as Narcotics Anonymous for drug dependence.



8. Which approach emphasizes repairing the harm caused by criminal behavior and involves the offender, victim, and community?

A. Restorative justice

B. Retributive justice

C. Deterrence theory

D. Incapacitation


Correct Answer: A. Restorative justice

Restorative justice focuses on repairing harm through offender, victim, and community participation.



9. What do you call the process of categorizing inmates based on their specific rehabilitation and security needs?

A. Community reintegration

B. Inmate classification

C. Psychological evaluation

D. Recidivism


Correct Answer: B. Inmate classification

Classification assigns inmates according to custody, risk, and treatment needs.



10. What behavioral modification strategy in a Therapeutic Community is designed to provide immediate feedback on a resident's inappropriate behavior?

A. Behavioral conditioning

B. Peer intervention/pull-up

C. Sentence reduction

D. Parole denial


Correct Answer: B. Peer intervention/pull-up

A "pull-up" is an immediate peer intervention to make residents aware of inappropriate behavior.


Correctional Administration Review Questions 1 (100 items)

Law Enforcement Organization and Administration Review Questions 1

Law Enforcement Organization and Administration Review Questions 1


1. Which administrative acronym represents the functions of management as defined by Luther Gulick?

A. CPM

B. SMART

C. SWOT

D. POSDCORB


Answer: D. This stands for Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Directing, Coordinating, Reporting, and Budgeting.



2. Which principle dictates that every employee should be accountable to only one supervisor?

A. Scalar principle

B. Unity of command

C. Span of control

D. Chain of command


Answer: B. This principle ensures clear reporting lines and prevents conflicting orders from multiple superiors.



3. What term describes the number of subordinates that a manager can effectively supervise?

A. Line of authority

B. Span of control

C. Area of responsibility

D. Unity of direction


Answer: B. It defines the limit of the number of subordinates one person can manage to maintain efficiency and safety.



4. In a police agency, which units are directly responsible for achieving the primary goals of the organization?

A. Staff units

B. Line units

C. Administrative units

D. Auxiliary units


Answer: B. These units, such as patrol and investigation, perform the actual field work of law enforcement.



5. What is the process of distributing tasks and authority from a superior to a subordinate?

A. Centralization

B. Commanding

C. Delegation

D. Supervising


Answer: C. This allows managers to assign responsibility and authority to lower-level employees to improve efficiency.



6. Which organizational principle involves a clear hierarchy of authority from top to bottom?

A. Equitable distribution

B. Discretionary authority

C. Scalar principle

D. Functional principle


Answer: C. It establishes a vertical 'ladder' of authority, ensuring every position has a specific rank.



7. Which function in POSDCORB involves the continuous task of making decisions and embodying them in specific orders?

A. Reporting

B. Planning

C. Directing

D. Coordinating


Answer: C, Directing is the active process of leading, instructing, and issuing orders to subordinates.



8. Who is credited with the concept of 'Bureaucracy' as a highly efficient organizational form?

A. Frederick Taylor

B. Henri Fayol

C. Douglas McGregor

D. Max Weber


Answer: D. Weber defined the ideal bureaucracy characterized by hierarchy, rules, and impersonal relationships.



9. What is the primary purpose of 'staff' units in a large law enforcement organization?

A. Making arrests

B. Directing operations

C. Advising line units

D. Conducting patrol


Answer: C, Staff units provide specialized advice, technical support, and research to help line officers perform their duties.



10. The line of authority extending from top management to lower levels is known as:

A. Span of control

B. Unity of command

C. Chain of command

D. Delegation


Answer: C, 

Explanation: The chain of command is the formal line of authority that extends from the highest level of management down through each successive level of the organization. It establishes who reports to whom and clarifies the flow of authority and responsibility.


Memorize or Familiarize


A. Span of control – Refers to the number of employees a manager directly supervises.

B. Unity of command – The principle that each employee should receive orders from only one supervisor.

C. Chain of command – The line of authority extending from top management to lower organizational levels.

D. Delegation – The process of assigning authority and responsibility to subordinates.


Comparative Models in Policing Review Questions 1


Introduction To Criminology Review Questions 1

 Introduction To Criminology Review Questions 1


1. Which previous law was explicitly repealed by the enactment of RA 11131?

A. RA 4864

B. RA 6506

C. RA 8551

D. RA 6975


Answer: B. RA 6506



2. Under RA 11131, which body is responsible for the regulation of the criminology profession?

A. The Philippine Society of Criminology

B. The Professional Criminologists Association of the Philippines (PCAP)

C. The Professional Regulatory Board for Criminologists

D. The Philippine Public Safety College


Answer: C.



3. What is the minimum educational qualification required for an applicant to take the Criminology Licensure Examination?

A. High School Diploma with 2 years of police experience

B. Associate degree in Police Science

C. Bachelor’s Degree in Criminology

D. Master’s Degree in Criminal Justice


Answer: C.



4. To pass the licensure examination, a candidate must obtain a weighted general average of at least 75%, with no grade lower than ____ in any given subject.

A. 50%

B. 60%

C. 70%

D. 75%


Answer: B. 60%



5. How long is the term of office for the Chairperson and members of the Professional Regulatory Board for Criminologists?

A. 2 years

B. 3 years

C. 5 years

D. 6 years


Answer: B



6. Which of the following is a new requirement under RA 11131 for the renewal of a Professional Identification Card?

A. Proof of active police service

B. Completion of a Master's degree

C. Compliance with the Continuing Professional Development (CPD) requirements

D. A recommendation from the Mayor


Answer: C. 



7. Which civil service eligibility is automatically granted to Registered Criminologists under Section 34 of RA 11131?

A. Sub-Professional Eligibility

B. Professional Eligibility

C. Career Executive Service Eligibility

D. Honor Graduate Eligibility


Answer: B.



8. Under the lateral entry program mentioned in RA 11131, at what rank are Registered Criminologists appointed in the PNP, BJMP, and BFP?

A. Police Corporal

B. Police Lieutenant

C. Police Captain

D. Police Major


Answer: B.



9. Which of the following agencies is required by RA 11131 to give priority to Registered Criminologists in their recruitment and appointment?

A. Department of Agriculture

B. National Bureau of Investigation (NBI)

C. Bureau of Internal Revenue

D. Department of Tourism


Answer: B.



10. What is a mandatory career requirement for those wishing to teach professional criminology subjects in schools under RA 11131?

A. Being a member of the Integrated Bar

B. Being a Registered Criminologist

C. Serving 10 years in the military

D. Holding a Doctorate in Philosophy


Answer: B.



11. Under RA 11131, registered criminologists are automatically granted civil service eligibility for what level of positions in government?

A. Sub-Professional Level

B. Professional Level

C. Second Level (Technical)

D. Third Level (Executive)


Answer: B, 


Reason: RA 11131 expressly grants Professional Civil Service Eligibility, not "Second Level (Technical)." While the Civil Service Commission recognizes Professional Eligibility as qualifying for second-level positions, the law itself uses the term Professional Civil Service Eligibility.



12. Which structural benefit allows a registered criminologist to bypass standard entrance ranks and be directly appointed as a line officer?

A. Promotional Waiver

B. Lateral Entry Privilege

C. Merit-Based Promotion

D. Special Enlistment


Answer: B



13. According to the law, what is the required baseline entry rank for a registered criminologist entering the PNP via lateral entry?

A. Police Lieutenant

B. Police Captain

C. Police Major

D. Police Colonel


Answer: A



14. Which of the following is true regarding a registered criminologist's privilege to sign official documents?

A. They must use a licensed lawyer's stamp.

B. They have the exclusive right to use an official professional seal.

C. They require a clearance from the local police chief.

D. They can only sign documents if accompanied by an NBI agent.


Answer: B



15. In terms of employment and promotion, what advantage does RA 11131 explicitly mandate for criminologists in government security agencies?

A. Automatic double salary increments

B. Exemption from background checks

C. Priority and preference in appointment

D. Lifetime tenure without probation


Answer: C



16. Under Section 34 of RA 11131, a registered criminologist who passes the Criminologist Licensure Examination is automatically granted which privilege?

A. Career Executive Service Eligibility

B. Professional Civil Service Eligibility

C. Honor Graduate Eligibility

D. Sub-Professional Eligibility


Answer: B



17. Which school of thought is based on the assumption that individuals have free will and calculate the costs and benefits of their actions?

A. Chicago School

B. Neo-Classical School

C. Classical School

D. Positivist School


Answer: C, This school, pioneered by Beccaria, emphasizes that humans are rational beings who exercise free will in choosing to commit crimes.



18. The Neo-Classical school of criminology is primarily known for introducing which concept into the justice system?

A. Strict legalism

B. Biological determinism

C. Mitigating circumstances

D. Social disorganization


Answer: C, The Neo-Classical school modified the absolute free will doctrine to allow for exceptions like age, mental health, and intent.



19. Cesare Lombroso, a key figure in the Positivist school, proposed that criminals are 'evolutionary throwbacks.' What term did he use for this?

A. Hedonism

B. Somatotyping

C. Atavism

D. Anomie


Answer: C, Atavism refers to the idea that criminals are biological regressions to a more primitive human stage.



20. In the Classical school, what are the three essential elements required for punishment to effectively deter crime?

A. Justice, equality, and liberty

B. Retribution, reform, and rehabilitation

C. Arrest, trial, and conviction

D. Celerity, severity, and certainty


Answer: D, Beccaria argued that for punishment to work, it must be swift (celerity), sufficiently harsh (severity), and inevitable (certainty).



21. Which of the following phrases best summarizes the focus of the Positivist school of criminology?

A. Focus on the victim

B. Focus on the act

C. Focus on the law

D. Focus on the offender


Answer: D, Positivism shifted the focus from the legal definition of the act to the scientific study of the individual offender's characteristics.



22. Jeremy Bentham, a Classical theorist, proposed a 'mental calculator' for pleasure and pain known as:

A. Felicific Calculus

B. Utilitarianism

C. Moral Insanity

D. Social Contract


Answer: A, Bentham's Felicific (or Hedonistic) Calculus was his method for measuring the amount of pleasure or pain an act produces.



23. Which school of thought advocates for the 'indeterminate sentence' to allow for the rehabilitation of the offender?

A. Abolitionist School

B. Neo-Classical School

C. Positivist School

D. Classical School


Answer: C, Because Positivists believe in treatment and reform, they favor sentences that last as long as the offender needs help.



24. The 'Holy Three of Criminology' include Lombroso, Ferri, and who else?

A. Raffaele Garofalo

B. Enrico Ferri

C. Auguste Comte

D. Cesare Beccaria


Answer: A, Garofalo was the third member of the Italian school of Positivism, known for his work on 'natural crime'.



25. According to the Classical school, why do people obey the law?

A. Social pressure

B. Fear of punishment

C. Moral upbringing

D. Biological instinct


Answer: B, The Classical school posits that deterrence (fear of consequences) is the primary motivator for legal compliance.



26. Which school of thought was the first to utilize the scientific method to study the causes of crime?

A. Classical School

B. Positivist School

C. Demonological School

D. Neo-Classical School


Answer: B, The Positivist school replaced philosophical speculation with empirical observation and data collection.



27. Which Italian physician is widely regarded as the Father of Modern Criminology due to his theory of atavism?

A. Cesare Beccaria

B. Cesare Lombroso

C. Raffaele Garofalo

D. Jeremy Bentham


Answer: B, Lombroso founded the Positivist School, suggesting that criminals are evolutionary throwbacks or 'born criminals'.

Garofalo was a student of Lombroso who focused on 'natural crime,' but is not the primary 'Father' of the field. 


His theory of atavism suggested that criminals were evolutionary throwbacks or “born criminals.” Beccaria, while influential, is more associated with classical criminology and legal reform.



Theories of Crime Causation Review Questions 1



Juvenile Delinquency and Juvenile Justice Review Questions 1

 Juvenile Delinquency and Juvenile Justice Review Questions 1


1. A 13‑year‑old was caught stealing food. Under RA 9344, what is the proper handling?

A. Criminally liable and prosecuted

B. Exempt from liability but subject to intervention programs

C. Detained in jail with adults

D. Subject to diversion proceedings


Answer: B



2. A 15‑year‑old committed theft but was found to have no discernment. What applies?

A. Criminally liable under the Revised Penal Code

B. Exempt from liability, subject to intervention programs

C. Detained in a youth detention home

D. Prosecuted under RA 6975


Answer: B



3. A 15‑year‑old committed robbery with discernment. What applies?

A. Exempt from liability

B. Criminally liable, subject to diversion or court proceedings

C. Automatically detained in jail

D. Subject only to barangay mediation


Answer: B



4. A 16-year-old committed petty theft with discernment. What is the proper handling?

A. Subject to diversion, if qualified under the law

B. Automatically exempt from liability

C. Detained in jail with adults

D. Subject only to barangay mediation


Answer: A. Subject to diversion, if qualified under the law



5. A 17‑year‑old committed homicide. What applies?

A. Diversion program regardless of penalty

B. Formal court proceedings, with consideration of rehabilitation

C. Automatic exemption from liability

D. Subject only to barangay intervention


Answer: B


 

6. A 15‑year‑old with discernment was previously diverted for theft but reoffended with robbery. What applies?

A. Exempt from liability again

B. Subject to intervention programs only

C. May now face formal court proceedings

D. Automatically detained in jail


Answer: C



7. An 18‑year‑old committed theft. Which law applies?

A. RA 9344

B. RA 10630

C. Revised Penal Code (regular criminal liability)

D. RA 6975


Answer: C



8. Which factor determines liability for a 15‑year‑old child in conflict with the law?

A. Gravity of the offense

B. Presence of discernment

C. Barangay council decision

D. Police recommendation


Answer: B


 

9. Which applies to children below 15 years old who commit an offense?

A. Diversion programs

B. Intervention programs (counseling, rehabilitation)

C. Formal court proceedings

D. Detention in jail


Answer: B



10. Under RA 9344, diversion is intended to:

A. Punish the child through imprisonment

B. Settle the case without appropriate judicial proceedings, when allowed by law

C. Transfer the child immediately to an adult jail

D. Replace intervention programs for children below 15 years old


Answer: B. Settle the case without appropriate judicial proceedings, when allowed by law



11. Under Republic Act No. 7658, what is the minimum age required for a child to be legally employed, subject to specific exceptions?

A. 18 years of age

B. 15 years of age

C. 14 years of age

D. 12 years of age


Answer: B, RA 7658 explicitly prohibits the employment of children below 15 years of age, except under very specific conditions.



12. Which condition must be met for a child below 15 to work directly under the sole responsibility of their parents or legal guardian?

A. Only family members are employed

B. The workplace has a clinic

C. The child receives double pay

D. The work is done on weekends


Answer: A, The law specifies that only members of the child's family can be employed in the same undertaking for this exception to apply.



13. When a child below 15 is employed in public entertainment, what must the employer first secure from the Department of Labor and Employment?

A. A business license

B. A health certificate

C. A work permit

D. A police clearance


Answer: C, RA 7658 requires a work permit issued by DOLE before a child can be engaged in public entertainment or information.



14. Under RA 7658, a child's employment must not interfere with the child's:

A. Recreational activities

B. Schooling

C. Household chores

D. Religious activities


Answer: B. Schooling



15. Which of the following is prohibited even if the child is working under the direct supervision of parents?

A. Hazardous occupations

B. Light chores

C. Afternoon shifts

D. Academic tutoring


Answer: A, Regardless of parental supervision, children below 15 are strictly prohibited from hazardous or deleterious work environments.



16. Who has the authority to issue the rules and regulations for the implementation of RA 7658?

A. The Senate President

B. Secretary of Labor and Employment

C. Secretary of Justice

D. Chief of the Philippine National Police


Answer: B, The Secretary of DOLE is mandated to issue the Implementing Rules and Regulations (IRR) for this law.



17. Which government agency is primarily responsible for enforcing the provisions of RA 7658 on child employment?

A. Department of Labor and Employment (DOLE)

B. Department of Education (DepEd)

C. Department of Social Welfare and Development (DSWD)

D. Philippine National Police (PNP)


Answer: A. Department of Labor and Employment (DOLE)




18. Under RA 7658, employers must protect working children against:

A. Exploitation

B. School assignments

C. Family obligations

D. Sports activities


Answer: A. Exploitation




19. Before a child below 15 may work in public entertainment, the employment contract must have:

A. DOLE approval

B. Barangay clearance

C. Mayor's permit

D. Police clearance


Answer: A. DOLE approval



20. Which factor is NOT considered a valid excuse for employing a child below 15 years of age under the law?

A. Public entertainment necessity

B. Work in family-only business

C. High poverty level of the family

D. Direct parental supervision


Answer: C, Poverty is a social condition but does not provide a legal exemption from the prohibition of child labor under RA 7658.


Dispute Resolution and Crisis/Incident Management Review Questions 1


Crime Detection and Investigation Review Questions 2 (CDI)

Crime Detection and Investigation Review Questions 2 (CDI)


1. These are the pieces of evidence that will link the suspect to the crime scene. The suspect may leave some clues at the scene, such as weapons, tools, and garments.

A. Corpus Delicti

B. Associative Evidence

C. Tracing Evidence

D. Physical Evidence


Answer: B



2.  What is the primary method of heat transfer in a solid material?

A. Conduction

B. Convection

C. Radiation

D. Absorption


Answer: A



3. It refers to a type of questioning initiated by Patrolman Torre after a person has been taken into custody.

A. Custodial Investigation

B. Interrogation

C. Investigation

D. Interview


Answer: A



4. Which principle states that every contact leaves a trace?

A. Locard's Exchange Principle

B. Principle of Uniformity

C. Principle of Exclusion

D. Chain of Custody Principle


Answer: A



5. Which plant is scientifically known as "Papaver Somniferum"?

A. Coca Bush

B. Marijuana

C. Opium Poppy

D. Peyote Cactus


Answer: C


6. The interview of a witness can be described by its acronym IRONIC. Which of the following describes it as good to get the positive feeling of the subject towards the investigators, such as a friendly atmosphere, which is vital for both the subject and investigator to have a better interaction?

A. Identity

B. Rapport

C. Opening Statement 

D. Narration


Answer: B



7. Breaking down complex proteins into simpler components associated with foul-smelling gases and accompanied by a change in the color of the body.

A. Putrefaction

B. Maceration

C. Mummification

D. Marbolization


Answer: A



8. What is the term for a defense claiming the suspect was elsewhere during the crime?

A. Alibi

B. Allegation

C. Statement

D. Defense


Answer: A



9. What is the term for the use of scientific instruments in crime detection?

A. Forensic Science

B. Criminal Justice

C. Criminalistic

D. Instrumentation


Answer: A



10. It is a sketch that gives a picture of the scene, the crime, and its environment, including neighboring buildings, the road, etc.

A. Sketch of Locality

B. Sketch of the Ground

C. Sketch in Details

D. Crime Scene Search


Answer: B



11. A physician who specializes primarily in medico-legal duties.

A. Medical Examiner

B. Medical Jurist

C. Medico-legal expert

D. None of the Above


Answer: B



12. What type of evidence is often used to establish the time of a crime?

A. Physical evidence

B. Documentary evidence

C. Circumstantial evidence 

D. Testimonial evidence


Answer: C



13. John and his group rob the LBP. The robbery was well-planned and perfectly executed. John and his group are considered what type of robbers?

A.  Commercial robbers

B. Opportunistic robbers

C. Professional Robbers

D. Career Robbers


Answer: C



14. What is the evaluation of an intelligence report that is a "completely reliable source and probably true"?

A. C-5

B. C-4

C. A-1

D. A-2


Answer: C



15. If the materials being consumed are combustible metallic substances such as magnesium, titanium, zirconium, sodium, and potassium, what class of fire is produced?

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Class D


Answer: D



16. The process of giving training and practice in the actual application of traffic safety knowledge is called __________.

A. Traffic Engineering

B. Traffic Education

C. Traffic Enforcement

D. Traffic Economy


Answer: B



17. This fire extinguishment method involves cutting off the fire's oxygen supply. Foam, sand, or a fire blanket can be used to seal the fire from the atmosphere.

A. Cooling/Quenching

B. Fuel Removal/Separation

C. Blanketing/Smothering

D. Chemical Inhibition


Answer: C



18. What is the primary reason for the difficulty in determining whether archeological evidence of fire is accidental or intentional?

A. The lack of sophisticated tools for analysis

B. The ambiguity of the evidence itself

C. The absence of written records

D. The limited knowledge of early human behavior


Answer: B



19. What is the purpose of maintaining a chain of custody for evidence?

A. To ensure that evidence is analyzed quickly

B. To prevent evidence from being contaminated

C. To identify suspects

D. To conduct interrogations


Answer: B



20. Which of the following should not be released to the press by the police officer?

A.  Length of investigation

B. Juveniles age

C. Juvenile's Name

D. Type of crime committed


Answer: C



21. What is the process by which the observation of a person, place, or thing by human or technical means to acquire information is conducted?

A. Intelligence

B. Surveillance

C. Casing

D. Shadowing


Answer: B



22. In testing a suspected intoxicated driver, which one of the following tests should be given last?

A. Handwriting

B. Pupils of the Eyes

C. Balance

D. Walking and Turning


Answer: B



23. As a general rule, the font size of a legal document should be:

A. 11

B.12

C. 13

D. 14


Answer: B



24. It is the luminous body of the burning gas that gets hotter and less luminous when mixed with more oxygen.

A. Fire

B. Combustion

C. Flame

D. Pyrolysis


Answer: C



25. Crime Scene Investigation starts upon the arrival of __________.

A. First Responder

B. Duty Investigator

C. SOCO

D. Chief of Police


Answer: A



26. As a general rule, the size of the bond paper that will be utilized in legal form is:

A. 8.5 inches by 13 inches

B. 8.5 inches by 11 inches

C. A4 size

D. Any size as deemed fit


Answer: A



27. It is a modification of the strip search and is useful for large crime scenes, particularly in outdoor scenes.

A. Strip or Line Search Method

B. Double Strip or Grid Method

C. Spiral or Circular Method

D. Zone or Quadrant  Search Method


Answer: B



28. Known as the simplest and most effective way of showing actual measurement and of identifying significant items of evidence in their location at the scene is __________.

A. Photograph

B. Sketch

C. Graphing

D. All of the above


Answer: B



29. In a crime scene involving a computer as evidence, the responder should image the RAM. If done, press and hold the power button for __________ seconds.

A. 10

B. 15

C. 20

D. 25


Answer: C



30. These drugs may affect your judgment, speech, and muscular coordination.

A. Stimulant

B. Depressant

C. Hallucinogen

D. Uppers


Answer: C



31. A strict code of conduct that governs the behavior of mafia members.

A. Code and Cipher

B. Omerta

C. Code of Ethics

D. None of the above


Answer: B



32. Applied to women who have had previous sexual acts but not yet given birth.

A. Defloration

B. Virgo Intacta

C. Moral Virginity

D. Physical Virginity


Answer: B



33. Which of the following is considered to be the most important quality of a good report? This requires the report to be in exact conformity with the facts.

A. Timeliness

B. Brevity

C. Accuracy

D. Clarity


Answer: C



34. Which of the following drugs has been known as the "soldiers' disease"?

A. Shabu

B. Cocaine

C. Opium

D. Morphine


Answer: D



35. Smoke in the study of fire is considered the product of: 

A. Incomplete combustion

B. Complete combustion

C. Fire

D. Heat


Answer: A



36. It is the conveying of persons, goods, and things from one place to another.

A. Traffic

B. Transportation

C. Movement

D. Shipping


Answer: B



37. Instead of using the "dead body" in your report, use the word?

A. Cadaver

B. Deceased

C. Departed

D. Corpse


Answer: A



38. In traffic rules, double solid yellow lane pavement markings indicate that?

A. Overtaking is possible when the other lane is clear of oncoming traffic.

B. Passing and overtaking can be made, but only when there is no incoming traffic.

C. Overtaking is always possible.

D. Absolutely no overtaking.


Answer: D



39. It refers to a person who gives information to the police voluntarily or involuntarily without any consideration.

A. Informer

B. Asset

C. Informant

D. Anonymous caller


Answer: C



40. The process of giving training and practice in the actual application of traffic safety knowledge is called __________.

A. Traffic Engineering

B. Traffic Education

C. Traffic Enforcement

D. Traffic Economy


Answer: B



41. It includes surveillance operations, counterintelligence, intelligence research, intelligence assessment, and similar police intelligence operations conducted to gather information related to security, public safety, and order.

A. Special Police Operation

B. Intelligence Operation

C. Investigation Operation

D. Scene of the Crime Operation


Answer: B



42. Breaking down complex proteins into simpler components associated with foul-smelling gases and accompanied by a change in the color of the body.

A. Putrefaction

B. Maceration

C. Mummification

D. Marbolization


Answer: A



43. It is the discreet observation of places, persons, and vehicles to obtain information concerning the identities or activities of subjects.

A. Shadowing

B. Tailing

C. Surveillance

D. None of the above


Answer: C



44. What is the king of all drugs?

A. Marijuana

B. Shabu

C. Alcohol

D. Coccaine


Answer: C



45. The stage of Money Laundering wherein the conversion of cash into monetary instruments and the conversion of tangible assets obtained by means of cash purchases happens. This stage is also called "heavy soaping".

A. Placement

B. Layering

C. Integration

D. Distribution


Answer: B



46. Which of the following is true of the term "Livor Mortis"?

A. Stiffening of some parts of the muscles

B. Stiffening of the body

C. Cooling of the body

D. Discoloration of the body


Answer: D



47. What is the term for a device utilized by an arsonist to spread the fire within a room or throughout a structure?

A. Plant

B. Trailer

C. Accelerant

D. Fire Hydrant


Answer: B



48. The following are the types of mechanical asphyxia EXCEPT one:

A. Strangulation 

B. Crushing 

C. Smothering

D. Cyanide poisoning


Answer: D



49. A clean, straight cut produced by a sharp-edged instrument like a knife, razor, or bolo.

A. Lacerated wound

B. Incised wound

C. Punctured wound

D. Abrasion


Answer: B



50. It is a criminal identification system consisting of a file containing photographs of arrested individuals, which usually includes full-face and mugshots along with a detailed physical description of the subject persons.

A. Fingerprinting

B. Criminal Profiling

C. Rogues Gallery

D. Mug Shot


Answer: C



51. How to identify a 25-year-old?

A. Face

B. Teeth

C. Bone

D. Muscle


Answer: C



52. It is a wound made by a pointed object such as a nail, knife, or sharp tooth.

A. Puncture

B. Incise

C. Laceration

D. Abrasion


Answer: A



53. It is a wound dressing material made of nitrocellulose dissolved in ether and alcohol, and other chemicals on sheets of glass.

A. Collodion

B. Hyposulphite of soda

C. Calotype

D. Heliography


Answer: A



54. This would be brought about by a change in atmospheric pressure.

A. Burn or scald

B. Frostbite

C. Barotrauma

D. Shrapnel Wound


Answer: C



55. A drug that binds to a target molecule with high affinity and possesses moderate intrinsic activity.

A. Structurally nonspecific drugs

B. Structurally specific drugs

C. Partial agonist

D. Depressants


Answer: C



56. It is often drawn later (not at the crime scene), using proper measurements, scale, and sometimes computer software.

A. Rough sketch

B. Finished sketch

C. Side-view sketch

D. All of the above


Answer: B



57. It's useful when recording vertical details, like the position of bullet holes on a wall, bloodstains, or furniture height.

A. Rough sketch

B. Finished sketch

C. Side-view sketch

D. All of the above


Answer: C



58. This type of sketch is made at the crime scene before evidence collection.

A. Rough sketch

B. Finished sketch

C. Side-view sketch

D. All of the above


Answer: A


59. Police Lieutenant Dugung opened the whole or any part of a computer system without the right. Which offense against the confidentiality of computer data and systems is committed?

A. Data Interference

B. Illegal Access

C. Illegal Interception

D. System Interference


Answer: B



60. A dangerous drug that is predominantly and legitimately used as a veterinary anesthetic.

A. Ketamine

B. Codeine

C.Anesthesia

D. Sleeping pills


Answer: A



61. Flammable gas.

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Class D


Answer: B



62. The following are the primary pillars of traffic, except:

A. Economics

B. Education

C. Enforcement

D. Engineering


Answer: A



63. The Dangerous Drugs Board is managed by a Board, a multi-disciplinary body composed of 17 members. Among the 17 members, how many are permanent members?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5


64. Who is considered the permanent consultant to DDB?

A. DILG

B. BuCor Director and Jail Warden

C. President and PNP Chief

D. PNP Chief and NBI Director


Answer: D



65. Which of the following is a type of natural drug?

A. Cocaine

B. Marijuana

C. Methamphetamine

D. Ecstasy


Answer: B



66. Which plant is scientifically known as "Papaver Somniferum"?

A. Coca Bush

B. Marijuana

C. Opium Poppy

D. Peyote Cactus


Answer: C



67. A condition in which the supply of oxygen to the blood has been reduced below working levels. (5x question)

A. Asphyxia

B. homicide

C. syncope

D. Coma


Answer: A



68. It was the first natural stimulant that was discovered.

A. Nicotine

B. Epinephrine

C. Caffeine

D. Ephedrine


Answer: C



69. A modus operandi file may be helpful in what tool of criminal investigation?

A. Information

B. Interview

C. Instrumentation

D. Criminalistics


Answer: A



70. While conducting an inspection of the buildings, you are mindful of flammable liquids. What is the term used to describe the lowest temperature at which a flammable liquid in an open container, at which vapors are evolved fast enough to support continuous combustion?

A. Flash point

B. Melting point

C. Fire point

D. Boiling point


Answer: C



71. Marks left on the roadway by tires when the brakes were applied strongly, hence the wheels locked, and were not free to rotate.

A. Skid marks

B. Scuff marks

C. Key event

D. Debris


Answer: A



72. These are left by tires that are still rotating but are slipping or sliding sideways, such as when a car takes a turn too fast or during a critical speed scuff.

A. Skid marks

B. Scuff marks

C. Key event

D. Debris


Answer: B



73. This is a term used in accident reconstruction to describe a crucial moment in the collision sequence (like the point of first impact), not a physical mark on the road.

A. Skid marks

B. Scuff marks

C. Key event

D. Debris


Answer: C


74. This refers to the loose material scattered on the road after a crash, such as broken glass, vehicle parts, or fluids.

A. Skid marks

B. Scuff marks

C. Key event

D. Debris


Answer: D



75. It is anal or oral copulation with a member of the same or opposite sex.

A. Prostitution

B. Fornication

C. Sodomy

D. Exhibitionism


Answer: C



76. The practice of deliberately exposing one's genitals or intimate body parts to an unsuspecting public or stranger for sexual gratification.

A. Prostitution

B. Fornication

C. Sodomy

D. Exhibitionism


Answer: D



77. Consensual sexual intercourse between two people who are not married to each other.

A. Prostitution

B. Fornication

C. Sodomy

D. Exhibitionism


Answer: B


78. Engaging in sexual activity in exchange for immediate payment or financial benefit.

A. Prostitution

B. Fornication

C. Sodomy

D. Exhibitionism 


Answer: A



79. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a collision course or otherwise avoid a hazard. 

A. state of evasive action    

B. point of possible perception 

C. point of no escape 

D. final position


Answer: A



80. An informant gives information to the police/investigator, and the purpose of informing the police is to eliminate rivals or competition. 

A. rival-elimination informant    

B. self-aggrandizing informant

C. mercenary informants 

D. anonymous informant


Answer: A



81. A number representing the resistance to sliding of two surfaces in contact is known as: 

A. coefficient of friction    

B. traffic jam 

C. attribute 

D. contract damage


Answer: A



82. The primary job of an investigator is to determine whether a crime has been committed to determine such he must have knowledge of the so-called cardinal question of investigation and there are ____ cardinals of investigation. 

A. six        

B. three     

C. vocabulary 

D. diction


Answer: A



83. The correct choice of words, selecting the exact, precise objective words to convey meaning 

A. exclamation point    

B. punctuation    

C. vocabulary   

D. diction


Answer: C



84. The instrument used to open and close a fire hydrant.

A. hydrant key   

B. kilowatts        

C. keyboard      

D. bunch of keys


Answer: A 



85. With respect to minor traffic violations, traffic police officers should be guided foremost by the consideration that  

A. Some traffic violations are intended 

B. The aim is to discourage violations 

C. Some traffic violations are caused by negligence    

D. violations must be punished


Answer: C



86. Who among the following scientific aiders in crime detection can inform the investigator as to the death of a person?

A. Ballistician

B. Cardiologists

C. Medical examiner

D. Fingerprint expert


Answer: C



87. This method of search is where the searchers gather at the center and proceed outward along the radii or spokes, the procedure of which is repeated several times, depending on the size of the circle and the number of searchers.

A. Circle method

B. Zone method

C. Wheel method

D. Quadrant method

E. Radial method


Answer: C



88. The surprise invasion of a building or area, or an attack of a limited territory on a small scale?

A. Arrest

B. Demolition

C. Raid

D. Search and Seizure


Answer: C



89. Before the questioning starts, the suspect requests to have counsel of his own, but he cannot afford to have one. The best thing an investigator should do is?

A. Stop the interrogation until a lawyer is produced

B. Continue the investigation with a promise that the lawyer will be present when he signs the statement

C. Stop the interrogation and release the suspect immediately

D. All of these


Answer: A



90. The collection of facts to establish the identity and location of the guilty party and provide evidence of his guilt is called:

A. Intelligence effort

B. information

C. instrumentation

D. Investigation


Answer: D



91. Authority of a person he exercised over his subordinates.

A. chain of command

B. command responsibility

C. responsibility

D. Command


Answer: B



92. An extra-judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible in the court of law if it was made in the presence of counsel of his own choice and must be in:

A. writing

B. the presence of a police investigator

C. front of a judge

D. the presence of a prosecutor

E. English


Answer: A



93. A method of locating a spot in the area by measurements from two or more reference points.

A. traffic report

B. spot report

C. triangulation

D. accident investigation


Answer: C



94. It is the questioning of a person suspected of having committed an offense or of a person who is reluctant to make a full disclosure of information in his position which is persistent to the investigation.

A. Investigation

B. Instrumentation

C. Interrogation

D. Interview


Answer: C



95. A kind of evidence that may link the suspect to the crime scene or offense.

A. Physical evidence

B. Chain of custody

C. Associative evidence

D. Tracing evidence


Answer: C



 96. _______ are used to prohibit certain types of maneuvers or some types of traffic.

A. Warning signs 

B. Cautionary signs

C. Informative traffic signs 

D. Prohibitory traffic signs   


Answer: D



97. A motor vehicle propelled by an internal combustion engine shall be equipped with a ____ to prevent excessive or unusual noise. 

A. wiper     

B. light      

C. muffler         

D. windshield


Answer: C


98. The ____ shall be conducted as a pre-requisite to grant permits and/or licenses by local governments or other government agencies.

A. Fire safety inspection    

B. Fire protection assembly 

C. Fire alerting system 

D. Fire service


Answer: A



99. Articles and material that are found in connection with the investigation and which aid in establishing the identity of the perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was committed, or which, in general, assist in the prosecution of this criminal. 

A. physical evidence   

B. associative evidence 

C. corpus delicti 

D. tracing evidence 


Answer: A



100. The investigator must be patient to obtain accurate and complete information, especially with uncooperative subjects.  

A. logical mind

B. power of self-control       

C. perseverance   

D. Integrity 


Answer: B


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