Law Enforcement Administration Review Questions 1
Law Enforcement Administration Review Questions
Syllabi/Table of Specification
The registered criminologist can perform the following professional practice outcomes for his/her initial entry into the practice of the profession:
- Demonstrate competence and a broad understanding of law enforcement administration, public safety, and criminal justice.
- Internalize the concepts of human rights and victim welfare.
- Effectively communicate orally and in writing using both English and Filipino.
- Act in recognition of professional, social, and ethical responsibility.
1. It depicts the unbroken flow of command from the top to the bottom of the organizational hierarchy.
A. Chain of Command
B. Span of control
C. Unity of command
D. Hierarchy of authority
Answer: Chain of Command
2. A PNP personnel with the rank of Police Lieutenant Colonel is subject to the appointing power of the ______ to the next higher rank.
A. President
B. DILG Secretary
C. The President is subject to the confirmation of the Commission on Appointments
D. Chief PNP
Answer: President
3. Organization may be defined as arranging personnel and functions in a systematic manner designed to accommodate stated goals and objectives in the best manner possible
A. effective
B. excellent
C. efficient
D. economical
Answer: Efficient
4. The hierarchy of authority, which is the order of ranks from the highest to the lowest levels of the organization, is called
A. scalar Chain
B. unity of command
C. line of authority
D. chain of command
Answer: Scalar Chain
5. It postulates that the commander is directly responsible for any act or omission of his subordinates in relation to the performance of their official duty
A. Command responsibility
B. Unity of Command
C. Delegation of Authority
D. Span of Control
Answer: Command Responsibility
6. The following were authorized to conduct summary dismissal over administrative cases against uniformed PNP personnel, except.
A. IAS
B. Chief PNP
C. PNP Regional Directors
D. None of these
Answer: IAS
7. The power to revoke the licenses issued to security guards is vested in
A. Chief PNP
B. Secretary, DILG
C. PNP Regional Director
D. Chairman, Napolcom
Answer: Chief PNP
8. What operational support units of the PNP conduct the identification and evaluation of physical evidence related to crimes?
A. Health service
B. Crime Laboratory
C. SOCO
D. CIDG
Answer: Crime Laboratory
9. This early English Police System adopted the so-called "tithings".
A. Frankpledge system
B. Metropolitan Constabulary of London
C. Parish constable system
D. Bow Street runners
Answer: Frankpledge system
10. In a criminal investigation, before taking the sworn statement of a suspect, the investigator should inform the suspect of?
A. The name of the complainant and witnesses
B. His constitutional rights
C. The evidence collected against him
D. His identity as an officer in a case
Answer: B
11. What is 'Tailgating in the context of security management?
a. Using fake identification cards
b. Unauthorized individuals following authorized personnel to gain entry
c. Smuggling goods out of the premises
d. Illegally copying access keys
Answer: B
12. What is the purpose of conducting a security audit?
a. To identify potential business opportunities
b. To assess employee job performance
c. To evaluate the effectiveness of security measures
d. To conduct a financial analysis
Answer: C
13. What does the acronym "HSE" stand for in the context of industrial security?
a. High-Security Establishment
b. Hazardous Safety Environment
c. Health, Safety, and Environment
d. Hostile Security Enforcement
Answer: C
14. What does "SWOT" stand for in the context of security risk assessment?
a. Security Watch and Operational Training
b. Safety Workflow and Occupational Tracking
c. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats
d. Security Workforce Optimization Tactics
Answer: C
15. Which of the following is NOT a physical security measure?
a. Security cameras
b. Access control systems
c. Employee training
d. Perimeter fencing
Answer: C
16. This Decree is known as the "Philippine Extradition Law".
a. PD 1069
b. RA 1069
c. PD 6910
d. RA 6910
Answer: A
17. The removal of an accused from the Philippines with the object of placing him at the disposal of foreign authorities.
a. Banishment
b. Destierro
c. Extradition
d. Exile
Answer: C
18. A request for extradition made by a foreign state shall be addressed to the
a. Secretary of Justice
b. Secretary of Foreign Affairs
c. Office of the President
d. Senate President
Answer: B
19. It is the duty of the Secretary of Foreign Affairs to forward the referral of the request for extradition to the
a. Secretary of Justice
b. PNP
c. NBI
d. BI
Answer: A
20. In extradition, the DOJ Secretary will designate an attorney to take charge of the case, who in turn will file the case at the...
a. Supreme Court
b. Court of Appeals
c. Regional Trial Court
d. Municipal Trial Court
Answer: C
21. In the hearing for extradition, what rules apply?
a. Rules of Court
b. Rules on summary procedure
c. Rules on special proceedings
d. None of these
Answer: A
22. In extradition, in case of urgency, the requesting state may request a provisional arrest of the accused; the request shall be sent to the
a. Director of NBI
b. Chief PNP
c. DOJ Secretary
d. DILG Secretary
Answer: A
23. The Philippines has an extradition law since...
a. 1972
b. 1977
c. 1986
d. 1992
Answer: B
24. The Philippines may only grant extradition under a treaty or convention. One of the following does not have an extradition treaty with the Philippines.
a. Australia
b. Canada
c. USA
d. Germany
Answer: D
25. How many countries have an extradition treaty with the Philippines?
a. 14
b. 24
c. 34
d. 44
Answer: A
26. In a simple sense, it is an act of deciding in advance what is to be done and how it is to be accomplished; it is, in essence, preparation for action.
A. Operations
B. management
C. planning
D. administration
Answer: C
27. In the Attrition System of the PNP, the maximum tenure of the PNP Regional Director is ;
A. 4 years
B. 6 years
C. 5 years
D. 9 years
Answer: B
28. The maximum tenure of office of the Chief of PNP or the Director General of the PNP is;
A. 4 years
B. 6 years
C. 5 years
D. 8 years
Answer: A
29. The act that provides for the National Police Commission to conduct Police examinations is;
A. RA 2260
B. RA 6040
C. RA 4864
D. RA 6141
Answer: B
30. The staff service of the NAPOLCOM who renders legal opinion arising from the administration of the PNP is referred to as
A. Personnel Administration Service
B. Planning and Research Service
C. Legal Affairs Service
D. People’s Law Enforcement Board
Answer: C
31. The method of separation from the police service after completing the required age for length of service is called
A. Retirement
B. Dismissal
C. Demotion
D. AWOL
Answer: A
32. The term of office of the four regular and full-time Commissioners of the NAPOLCOM is
A. 6 years
B. 5 years
C. 4 years
D. 9 years
Answer: A
33. The NAPOLCOM shall be composed of the offices of the Chairperson, Commissioners, and one
A. Ex officio Chairman
B. Secretary
C. Ex-officio Commissioner
D. Ex officio Chairperson
Answer: C
34. The agency of the government responsible for the administration of police entrance and promotional examination is the
A. Civil Service Commission
B. NAPOLCOM
C. PNPA
D. CHED
Answer: B
35. Complaints against personnel of the Internal Affairs Office shall be brought to the
A. DILG Secretary
B. Internal Affairs Service
C. PLEB
D. Inspector General Napolcom
Answer: D
36. The PNP shall be organized to ensure accountability and uprightness in the police exercise of discretion, as well as to achieve
A. Reformation and rehabilitation
B. Efficiency and effectiveness
C. Organization and Administration
D. None of the above
Answer: B
37. The ex officio chairman of the NAPOLCOM is the
A. Chief of the PNP
B. Secretary of DILG
C. Commissioner from the civilian sector
D. None of the above
Answer: B
38. The four regular and full-time Commissioners of the NAPOLCOM shall be appointed by the President for a term of
A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. 9 years
Answer: C
39. The reorganization of the PNP is made by the NAPOLCOM, which shall conduct a management audit and prepare a proposed reorganization plan to be approved by
A. DILG Secretary
B. Congress
C. C/PNP
D. President
Answer: B
40. The division that shall accomplish the primary responsibility of safeguarding the community through the protection of persons and property, the suppression of criminal activities, the apprehension of criminals, the enforcement of laws and ordinances and regulations of conduct, and performing necessary services and inspections is
A. Traffic Division
B. Theft and Robbery Division
C. Patrol Force
D. Juvenile Delinquency Control Division
Answer: C
41. The traffic accident investigator is chiefly concerned with accidents that involve one or both of the elements, namely
A. motor vehicles and traffic way
B. motor vehicle and victim
C. victim and traffic way
D. victim and traffic unit
Answer: A
42. One of the following statements that best indicates the main purpose of traffic law enforcement is
A. Reduce traffic by punishing violators of traffic rules
B. Keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid bottlenecks
C. Control the speed limit in densely populated areas
D. prevent traffic accidents and expedite the flow of traffic
Answer: D
43. It is customary for the police to keep records of lost or stolen automobile license plates. The best reason for this practice is to
A. Permit the promotion of the issuance of new plates
B. prevent cards from being stolen
C. Keep a record of all outstanding license plates in use
D. detain any person found using or attempting to use any of these plates.
Answer: D
44. The general principle of traffic accident investigation is to
A. Consider road conditions as limiting conditions rather than as causes
B. consider violation as the primary cause and any other factors as secondary causes
C. regards any unfavorable factor existing immediately before the accident as a cause
D. Look for the “key event” that causes the accident
Answer: D
45. The basic principle behind selective enforcement in traffic control is
A. Selection of geographical areas for strict enforcement
B. concentration of enforcement activities at peak traffic hours
C. a shifting emphasis on different types of violations
D. A warning rather than a citation will act as a preventive measure for future violations
Answer: A
46. In the examination of the scene of an accident, which of the following pieces of evidence will show how the accident happened?
A. hole in the road pavement
B. the driver under the influence of liquor
C. point of impact
D. The vehicle has a brake failure
Answer: C
47. The optional retirement for officers and new officers of the police service is
A. 15 years
B. 25 years
C. 30 years
D. 20 years
Answer: D
48. The nature of the complaint against any PNP member is called
A. Individual Complaint
B. Public Complaint
C. Citizen’s Complaint
D. Administrative Complaint
Answer: C
49. The consequence of an act that temporarily deprives an officer of the privilege of performing his duty is referred to as:
A. Dismissal
B. Retirement
C. Resignation
D. Suspension
Answer: D
50. Registration of a security agency as a corporation must be processed at what particular government agency?
A. PNP SAGSD
B. NAPOLCOM
C. DND
D. SEC
Answer: D
51. Minimum age requirement for security manager or operator of a security agency.
A. 25 years old
B. 30 years old
C. 35 years old
D. 40 years old
Answer: A
52. He exercises the power to revoke for cause licenses issued to security guards.
A. Chief PNP
B. DILG Usec
C. NAPOLCOM chairman
D. DILG Secretary
Answer: A
53. Refers to a natural or man-made structure that is capable of delaying illegal access to the facility.
A. Wall
B. Fence
C. Barriers
D. Beach fronts
Answer: C
54. It refers to the means and ways that personnel and employees make them security conscious.
A. Security Promotion
B. Security Education
C. Security Investigation
D. Security Seminar
Answer: B
55. Industrial management must establish the first line of physical defense, which refers to
A. Perimeter barriers
B. The building itself
C. Door, Locks, Window barriers
D. Entry points where security guards are located
Answer: A
56. Physical security is a system of barriers placed between the potential intruder and the object to be protected. As criminologists, this is simply a denial of
A. Opportunity to commit the offense
B. Opportunity to the object of protection
C. Access to the object of protection
D. Criminal instinct to surface in the potential offender
Answer: C
57. The weakest link in the security chain.
A. Security Guards
B. Manager
C. Barriers
D. Personnel
Answer: D
58. Perimeter barriers, protective lighting, and ______ system are known in industrial security as physical security.
A. Guarding
B. Reporting
C. Relieving
D. Accounting
Answer: A
59. This is an additional outward inclined fixed structure, usually barbed wires placed above a vertical fence to increase physical protection from intruders of a certain area. This is known as
A. Cellar Guard
B. Tower Guard
C. Top Guard
D. Top Tower
Answer: C
60. The exterior and interior parallel area near the perimeter barrier of an industrial compound to afford better observation and patrol movement is known as
A. Protective zone
B. Clear zone
C. Twilight zone
D. Patrol lane zone
Answer: B
61. Protective guarding in a compound can be done by the use of electronic hardware, human n guards, and even animals. In England, an owner protects their compound, which is not only effective but also the cheapest to maintain. This man is using
A. Doberman
B. Tame Tigers
C. Geese
D. Duck
Answer: C
62. The government agency that issues licenses for private and government security guards is
A. PNP SOSIA
B. Mayor's office
C. PNP FEO
D. PNP SAGSD
Answer: D
63. If access is limited only to unauthorized personnel, this particular place is referred to as
A. Compromise area
B. Restricted area
C. Danger area
D. Exclusive area
Answer: B
64. The first measure was undertaken before a comprehensive security program for an industrial plan could be developed.
A. Security Education
B. Security check
C. Security survey
D. Security Inspection
Answer: C
65. The security of a plant or industrial firm is also known by other terms, except
A. Robbery evaluation
B. Vulnerability
C. Risk Assessment
D. Security Audit
Answer: B
66. Today, there are 3 categories of security guards belonging to the Blue Army.
A. Government security guards
B. Company guards
C. Agency guards
D. Bodyguards
Answer: D
67. Whether to put up its own security guard, organic to the firm or hire contractual agency guards has its individual merits and disadvantages. To determine which type of guarding system an industrial firm will require, management must consult
A. A security consultant not connected to or owning a security agency
B. A military intelligence officer
C. A police officer
D. A security agency owner
Answer: A
68. As a security officer, you can not prevent nor protect against natural hazards like storms, earthquakes, floods, and the like. To reduce the disastrous effects of these natural hazards, you will
A. Call PAGASA and inquire when the next storm is coming
B. Alert your guards when hazards occur
C. Not take any concern about such hazards
D. Prepare a disaster or emergency plan
for these hazards for the firm
Answer: D
69. A practical exercise or test of a plan or activity to determine its effectiveness is called
A. Sham drill
B. Fire drill
C. Dry run
D. Evacuation plan
Answer: C
70. The main reason for a personnel security investigation is
A. To weed out undesirable employees
B. To check the loyalty of employees to the organization
C. To determine the character and reputation of certain employees secretly tagged as risks.
D. Preclude assignment to sensitive positions for those who are security risks.
Answer: D
71. In an industrial firm, there is a need for document security. As a security officer, you can advise management on this aspect, although this is only partially your assigned work. Document security is not a protection of vital records from
A. Authorized handlers
B. Theft or loss
C. Compromise or destruction
D. Unauthorized access
Answer: A
72. As a security chief of an industrial firm, the inventory shows that pilferage is rampant in the warehouses. What will be your choice of action
A. To resign if you have failed in your job
B. Deploy intelligence men in pilferage-prone areas to catch the culprit
C. Prepare your protective plans and confer with management for their immediate implementation
D. Tighten checking of the existence of vehicles in the compound/complex
Answer: B
73. There are many types of electronic and electric protective devices available for security buildings, storehouses, and compounds. One of the following is true
A. Electronics/electrical devices provide total protection for the place to be safeguarded
B. Types of alarms needed can best be given by the dealers of said devices
C. Each building or compound requires particular electronic/electrical protective devices
D. Electronic/electrical devices eliminate human guards
Answer: C
74. The management of keys used in a plant office or business organization to prevent unauthorized access is referred to as
A. Security key control
B. Lock control
C. key control
D. Key management
Answer: C
75. It is defined as a system of barriers placed between the matters protected and the potential intruder
A. Computer security
B. Personnel security
C. Document security
D. Physical security
Answer: D
76. This type of alarm system utilizes a station located outside the compound
A. Auxiliary system
B. Proprietary system
C. Central alarm system
D. Local alarm system
Answer: C
77. It is installed as part of the building, which holds up to 10,000 cubic meters of essential items. At least 12 ft. in height with enough ventilation and fireproofing for at least one hour.
A. Protective cabinet
B. File room
C. Vault
D. Safe
Answer: B
78. It is the susceptibility of a plant or establishment to damage, loss, or disruption of operations due to various hazards.
A. Risk analysis
B. Risk assessment
C. Relative vulnerability
D. Relative criticality
Answer: C
79. It refers to the importance of the establishment regarding the national economy and security.
A. Risk analysis
B. Relative vulnerability
C. Risk assessment
D. Relative criticality
Answer: D
80. The association of all licensed security agency operators
A. POAPAD
B. PADPAO
C. PODPAO
D. PAOPAD
Answer: B
81. Who among the following can own or operate a security agency?
A. A Filipino citizen
B. Anyone, provided he knows the job
C. An alien living in the Philippines
D. All of them
Answer: A
82. A license is issued to operate a security agency or company forces.
A. Business license
B. License to engage in business
C. License to operate
D. All of them
Answer: C
83. R.A. No. 5487 governs the operation of
A. Private detective
B. Company security
C. Private security forces/agencies
D. All of them
Answer: D
84. Fact-finding is used to determine a plant's adequacy and deficiency in all aspects of security, with the corresponding recommendation.
A. Security audit
B. Security survey
C. Security inquiry
D. Security operations
Answer: B
85. Barriers include but are not limited to walls, fences, grills, etc.
A. Structural barriers
B. Man-made barriers
C. Physical barriers
D. Natural barriers
Answer: B
86. One who steals due to his inability to resist the unexpected opportunity and has little fear of detection.
A. Systematic
B. Outsider
C. Casual
D. Insider
Answer: C
87. A barrier that includes but is not limited to mountains, cliffs, ravines, etc.
A. Energy
B. Human
C. Natural
D. Animals
Answer: C
88. Issued by the security guard for personnel to be admitted to the company.
A. Duress code
B. Pass system
C. ID
D. Access list
Answer: B
89. In close-in security formations, a one-man security covers
A. 360 degrees
B. 180 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 90 degrees
Answer: A
90. A mechanical device supplying water that can be manual or motor-driven.
A. Standpipe
B. Fire extinguisher
C. Fire hydrant
D. Fire pump
Answer: A
91. Intrusion alarm devices are designed to ______ and not prevent criminals from trespassing and should be used normally as an independent adjunct and not a replacement of the human guard forces.
A. Detect
B. Deterred
C. Provide
D. Impeded
Answer: A
92. An authenticated list of personnel given to security, allowing entry to the compound or installation or part thereof.
A. Pass system
B. ID
C. Access list
D. Duress code
Answer: C
93. The act or condition affecting the safe operation of the facility caused by human action, accidental or intentional. It includes sabotage, espionage, pilferage and theft, disloyalty, disaffection, and subversive activities.
A. Electronic hazard
B. natural hazard
C. Artificial hazard
D. Human hazard
Answer: D
94. Example of the Security Communication system.
A. Telephone
B. Paging system
C. Radio
D. All of them
Answer: D
95. The revised rules and regulations govern the organization and operation of private detectives, private security agencies, and company security forces throughout the country.
A. Private security law
B. International law
C. Private law
D. Security law
Answer: A
96. A metallic container is used for the safekeeping of documents or small items in an office or installation.
A. Steel cabinet
B. Drawer
C. Basket
D. Safe
Answer: D
97. A heavily constructed fire and burglar-resistant container is usually a part of the building structure used to keep and protect cash, documents, and negotiable instruments.
A. Basket
B. Vault
C. Steel cabinet
D. Concrete coffin
Answer: B
98. Steal or plastic pipes located in the building from the lowest to the top floor with water under pressure for use in case of fire.
A. Lowering pipe
B. Wet pipe
C. Top pipe
D. Standpipe
Answer: D
99. Who among the following is exempted from pre-licensing training?
A. AFP and PNP retirees
B. Graduate of ROTC basic or advanced
C. AFP and PNP veterans
D. All of the above
Answer: D
100. Tenure of security personnel is based on
A. Can be extended by the client
B. The service contract between the agency and the client
C. Labor-only contract between the agency and the guard
D. Tenure provided by the labor code
Answer: B
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