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Criminological Research Review Questions 1

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 1. A researcher must ensure that all sources cited throughout a study—such as books, journals, and online articles—are properly listed. Which section of the research paper is being described?

A. Reference materials

B. Curriculum Vitae

C. Reference list

D. Appendix


2. Which section of a research paper is located at the very end of the document and contains supplementary or detailed materials—such as raw data, blank survey questionnaires, or sample consent letters—that support the study?

A. Reference materials

B. Curriculum Vitae

C. Reference list

D. Appendix


3. Which section of a research study or dissertation provides a detailed summary of the researcher's educational background, professional history, academic publications, and credentials?

A. Reference materials

B. Curriculum Vitae

C. Reference list

D. Appendix


4. When conducting a literature review, a criminologist may consult dictionaries, encyclopedias, almanacs, or legal indexes to find quick background information or definitions. What category of background library resources does this describe?

A. Reference materials

B. Curriculum Vitae

C. Reference list

D. Appendix


5. In a study investigating 'The Impact of Police Visibility on the Crime Rate in Metro Manila,' what type of variable is 'Police Visibility'?

A. Confounding variable

B. Dependent variable

C. Independent variable

D. Intervening variable


6. A criminologist conducts a study by diving deep into the lived experiences of modern-day piracy survivors through face-to-face, unstructured interviews. What research design is being utilized?

A. Qualitative design

B. Experimental design

C. Correlational design

D. Quantitative design


7. Which probability sampling technique involves dividing the target population into distinct sub-groups based on shared traits—such as rank, gender, or crime type—before randomly selecting participants from each sub-group?

A. Purposive sampling

B. Cluster sampling

C. Snowball sampling

D. Stratified random sampling


8. When a researcher copies a paragraph verbatim from a Supreme Court ruling or a published criminological journal without using quotation marks or providing proper attribution, what ethical violation is committed?

A. Fabrication

B. Falsification

C. Plagiarism

D. Malpractice


9. Where should a researcher place bulky items such as the actual survey questionnaires, sample informed consent forms, or endorsement letters signed by the PNP Regional Director?

A. Theoretical Framework

B. Reference list

C. Appendix

D. Introduction


10. A researcher collects numerical data representing the monthly number of recorded theft cases from ten different police precincts over five years. What type of data is being gathered?

A. Quantitative data 

B. Nominal data

C. Subjective data

D. Qualitative data


11. To understand the underground operations of illegal drug syndicates, a researcher blends into a high-risk community and actively participates in day-to-day interactions without revealing their identity. What data collection method is being applied?

A. Structured interview

B. Covert participant observation

C. Overt participant observation

D. Focus group discussion


12. A thesis tracking the rehabilitation progress of inmates utilizes a sampling method where the researcher intentionally selects individuals who have served at least ten years in prison. What non-probability sampling technique is this? 

A. Simple random sampling

B. Convenience sampling

C. Purposive sampling

D. Quota sampling


13. Which section of Chapter 1 in a standard line-by-line research outline explicitly sets the boundaries of the study by stating what is included and what is deliberately excluded?

A. Scope and Delimitation

B. Statement of the Problem

C. Definition of Terms

D. Significance of the Study


14. Before administering a survey to active police officers, a researcher conducts a small-scale trial run with ten non-participating officers to check if the questions are clear and consistent. What is this trial run called?

A. Pilot testing

B. Data editing

C. Triangulation

D. Sampling frame evaluation


15. A research paper includes a section that visualizes the logical relationship between variables using a schematic diagram, often called a paradigm. What is this section?

A. Conceptual Framework

B. Historical Research Design

C. Research Abstract

D. Review of Related Literature


16. What level of data measurement classifies variable attributes into distinct categories with a strict, meaningful rank or hierarchical progression, such as military or police ranks (e.g., Patrolman, Corporal, Sergeant)?

A. Ratio level

B. Nominal level

C. Interval level

D. Ordinal level


17. If a researcher alters or manipulates actual crime statistics in their final report to make a newly implemented community policing program look more successful than it actually was, what research misconduct is committed?

A. Duplication

B. Plagiarism

C. Fabrication

D. Falsification


18. A criminological study seeks to determine if a correlation exists between an individual's family income level and their likelihood of recidivism. What type of research design is this?

A. Phenomenological design

B. Correlational design

C. Descriptive design

D. Experimental design


19. Which component of a research paper's methodology section details the total population from which samples are drawn, along with the precise mathematical formula or technique used to select respondents?

A. Research Instrument

B. Population and Sampling

C. Data Gathering Procedure

D. Statistical Treatment of Data


20. A researcher designs a new survey questionnaire to measure the level of job burnout among jail guards. Before deployment, they submit the questionnaire to a panel of three seasoned jail wardens and two senior criminologists to verify if the questions accurately cover all dimensions of workplace stress. What specific type of validation is being conducted?

A. Predictive Validity

B. Content Validity

C. Reliability Testing

D. Criterion-related Validity


Correctional Administration Review Questions


Answer:

1. C

2. D

3. B

4. A

5. C

6. A

7. D

8. C

9. C

10. A

11. B

12. C

13. A

14. A

15. A

16. D

17. D

18. B

19. B

20. B


Introduction to Industrial Security Concepts Review Questions 1

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 Introduction to Industrial Security Concepts Review Questions 1

(Answers are provided below.)


1. A house like structures above the perimeter barrier, which increases the range and observation.

A. Top guard

B. Wire Fence

C. Towers

D. Security lighting


2. An industrial complex installs elevated, house-like structures along its perimeter barrier to provide security personnel with a commanding view of the entire property. This physical security feature is designed primarily to maximize which of the following?

A. Top guard capability

B. Range and observation

C. Perimeter illumination

D. Barrier resistance


3. To prevent intruders from easily scaling a 10-foot chain-link fence, a security manager adds an outward-slanting structure consisting of multiple strands of barbed wire at the very top of the barrier. This specific component is known as a:

A. Tower guard

B. Clear zone

C. Top guard

D. Secondary barrier


4. Which of the following physical security measures serves as the primary, continuous medium-structure designed to establish the physical boundary of a protected facility and deter unauthorized access at ground level?

A. Security lighting

B. Wire fence

C. Watchtower

D. Perimeter vault


5. A security audit reveals that a facility’s blind spots can be compromised under the cover of darkness. The administration decides to install high-intensity illumination along the perimeter wall. What specific security component are they implementing to improve visibility without adding physical height?

A. Top guard

B. Wire fence

C. Security lighting

D. Observation tower


6. In physical security system design, what is the distinct tactical advantage of a guard tower over standard security lighting and wire fencing?

A. It provides a flexible, moving barrier against intrusion.

B. It offers an elevated, sheltered vantage point that increases the range of observation.

C. It serves as an automated access control point for personnel.

D. It eliminates the need for top guards on adjacent fences.


CFLM 1 - Nationalism and Patriotism


Answer:

1. C

2. B

3. C

4. B

5. C

6. B

Comparative Models in Policing Review Questions 3

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 Comparative Models in Policing Review Questions

(Answers are provided below.)


1. When citizens report more crimes to the police and demand greater effectiveness in solving crime problems, it serves as an example of the ______ theory.

A. Migration

B. Alertness to crime

C. Demographic setting

D. Opportunity


2. As a society experiences socio-economic advancement, the public develops a lower tolerance for lawlessness, resulting in a higher volume of official police blotter entries. This phenomenon directly reflects the principles of which theory?

A. Migration

B. Alertness to crime

C. Demographic setting

D. Opportunity


3. When citizens become highly educated about their legal rights and actively pressure law enforcement agencies to improve their crime-solution efficiency rates, they are demonstrating the core concept of:

A. Migration

B. Alertness to crime

C. Demographic setting

D. Opportunity


4. A commercial district experiences a sudden spike in nighttime burglaries because store owners stopped hiring security guards and left valuable merchandise visible from the street. In comparative policing and environmental criminology, this situation is best explained by the ______ theory.

A. Migration

B. Alertness to crime

C. Demographic setting

D. Opportunity


5. According to this criminological perspective, crime rates fluctuate not because the number of motivated offenders changes, but because changes in daily routines create a convergence of a motivated offender, a suitable target, and the absence of a capable guardian.

A. Migration

B. Alertness to crime

C. Demographic setting

D. Opportunity


6. A criminological researcher notes that Region X has a significantly higher crime rate compared to Region Y, primarily because 60% of Region X's population consists of males aged 15 to 29. This analysis relies on the ______ theory.

A. Migration

B. Alertness to crime

C. Demographic setting

D. Opportunity


7. In the study of comparative police systems, a nation’s urbanization rate, population density, and age distribution are critical factors that shape its specific crime problems. This baseline context is referred to as the:

A. Migration

B. Alertness to crime

C. Demographic setting

D. Opportunity


8. The rapid influx of workers from rural provinces into a newly industrialized economic zone causes cultural friction and an increase in localized petty crimes. This scenario illustrates how ______ affects a region's crime profile.

A. Migration

B. Alertness to crime

C. Demographic setting

D. Opportunity


9. Which theory emphasizes that the physical movement of populations across geographic boundaries or borders can disrupt traditional social controls and alter the crime rate of both the hosting and originating areas?

A. Migration

B. Alertness to crime

C. Demographic setting

D. Opportunity


10. In a developing metropolitan area, law enforcement notices that as the economy grows, the physical presence of unguarded automated teller machines (ATMs) increases, drawing the attention of syndicate groups. Which theory explains this specific catalyst for criminal behavior?

A. Migration

B. Alertness to crime

C. Demographic setting

D. Opportunity


Introduction to Industrial Security Concepts Reviewer


Answer:

1. B

2. B

3. B

4. D

5. D

6. C

7. C

8. A

9. A

10. D

Article 331. Destroying or damaging statues, public monuments or paintings

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 Article 331. Destroying or damaging statues, public monuments, or paintings. - Any person who shall destroy or damage statues or any other useful or ornamental public monument shall suffer the penalty of arresto mayor in its medium period to prision correccional in its minimum period.


Any person who shall destroy or damage any useful or ornamental painting of a public nature shall suffer the penalty of arresto menor or a fine not exceeding forty thousand pesos (P40,000), or both such fine and imprisonment, in the discretion of the court.



The penalty is lower if the thing destroyed is a public painting, rather than a public monument.


Criminology Review Questions


Related:

1. Criminal Law and Jurisprudence Board Exam Questions and Answers

Criminalistics Review Questions 2 (Forensic Science)

On

 Criminalistics Review Questions 2 (Forensic Science)

(Answers are provided below)


Syllabi/Table of Specification


SPECIFIC PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE OUTCOMES FOR THIS SUBJECT:


The registered criminologist can perform the following professional practice outcomes for his/her initial entry into the practice of the profession:


1. Utilize criminalistics or forensic science in the investigation and detection of crime.

2. Apply the principles and jurisprudence of criminal law, evidence, and criminal procedure.

3. Demonstrate competence and a broad understanding of law enforcement administration, public safety, and criminal justice.

4. Internalize the concepts of human rights and victim welfare.

5. Effectively communicate orally and in writing using both English and Filipino.

6. Act in recognition of professional, social, and ethical responsibility


1. There is a freehand invitation and is considered the most skillful class of forgery          

A. simulated or copied forgery          

B. simple forgery          

C. traced forgery          

D. carbon tracing


2. A condensed and compact set of authentic specimens which is adequate and proper, should contain a cross-section of the material from known sources.            

A. disguised document              

B. questioned document          

C. standard document          

D. requested document


3. Specimens of handwriting or of typescript which is of known origin.          

A. Letters          

B. Samples          

C. Exemplars          

D. Documents


4. A document that is being questioned because of its origin, its contents, the circumstances, or the stories of its production.            

A. disputed document          

B. standard document          

C. requested document          

D. questioned document


5. The art of beautiful writing is known as          

A. Drafting          

B. Calligraphy          

C. Art Appreciation          

D. Gothic


6. Any written instrument by which a right or obligation is established.          

A. Certificate         

B. Subpoena          

C. Warrant          

D. Document 


7. A type of fingerprint pattern in which the slope or downward flow of the innermost sufficient recurve is towards the thumb of the radius bone of the hand of origin.          

A. ulnar loop           

B. tented arch          

C. accidental whorl          

D. radial loop


8. The forking or dividing of one line into two or more branches.          

A. Ridge          

B. Island          

C. Delta          

D. Bifurcation


9. The point on a ridge at or in front of and nearest the center of the divergence of the type lines.          

A. Divergence          

B. Island          

C. Delta          

D. Bifurcation


10. The following are considerations used for the identification of a loop except one:          

A. Delta          

B. Core          

C. a sufficient recurve          

D. a ridge count across a looping bridge


11. It refers to the taking in of light by the material. Following the law of conservation of energy, such light taken in is not lost but merely transformed into heat. 

A. Diffraction

B. Reflection

C. Absorption   

D. Convection


12. These are mediums that merely slow down the speed of light but allow it to pass freely in other respects, and transmit 90% or more of the incident light.

A. Translucent objects

B. Opaque objects

C. Transparent objects   

D. None of these


13. The simplest camera is a ___, which consists of a box with a small hole in one of its sides.

A. Camera obscura

B. Fixed focus camera

C. Pinhole camera   

D. Nikon camera


14. What changes the size of the aperture of the lens and regulates the amount of light reaching the film?

A. diaphragm    

B. shutter

C. lens

D. film


15. What part of the camera controls the opening and closing of the shutter, regulates the quantity of light that reaches and affects the sensitized material, and a dial that sets the length of time in which the light is allowed to enter the camera?

A. Shutter speed

B. Focusing mechanism

C. Shutter release button

D. Shutter speed dial


16. The lens is as important a part of a camera as the body. Lenses are referred to in generic terms as wide-angle, normal, and telephoto. The three terms refer to the focal length of the lens, which is customarily measured in ____

A. Millimeters   

B. Inches

C. Centimeters

D. Mile per second


17. What kind of lens causes light rays to converge, or come together, and is called a positive lens. A positive lens focuses light from a distant source into a visible image that appears on the opposite side of the lens to the object.

A. Concave 

B. Convex    

C. Reflex

D. converge


18. It is the process of changing the distance between the centers of the lens to the focal plane. It is the technique of adjusting the focal length to get a sharp image of the object or scene to be photographed. 

A. Infinity

B. Lens change

C. Focusing   

D. Shutting


19. It is important to have the lens at the right distance from the film otherwise the image of an object point will be seen as a circle which is 

A. clear in appearance

B. blurred in appearance   

C. no photo

D. all of these


20. What part of the film consists of silver compounds which are light sensitive and halogens?

A. Top layer

B. Emulsion layer   

C. Film base

D. Film surface


21. It is defined as the product of illumination and time. The unit is usually in meters candle second which is equivalent to exposure produced by a light source of one candlepower, in the second at a distance of one meter from the surface of the sensitized material.

A. Photographic Exposure   

B. Light

C. Photographic speed

D. None of these


22. These are used to control the relative tone values in which colors are rendered by the photographic process, to lighten or darken particular colors, or to obtain color separation records for color photography works.

A. Viewing Filter

B. Color Filter   

C. Filtering

D. None of these


23. Because of the fact that all negatives do not print best on one kind of paper, and to permit printing for special effects, photographic papers are made in several different grades of contrast and surface texture. What is the paper made by Kodak that offers six degrees of contrast and a glossy surface?

A. Glossy paper

B. Manila paper

C. Velox paper   

D. Bond paper


24. A camera with a ground-glass focusing screen on which the image is formed by a combination of lens and mirror, enabling the scene to be correctly composed and focused.

Answer: Reflex Camera


25. One that is executed under the Code of Commerce or any Mercantile Law, containing disposition of commercial rights or obligations.

A. Commercial document   

B. Holographic wills

C. Notarial wills

D. Private document


26. It includes the addition of writing and other material between lines or paragraphs or the addition of a whole page to a document.

A. Insertion or interlineations   

B. Integration

C. Obliteration

D. None of these


27. In questioned document examination, what is an “OFF-HAND OPINION”? 

A. A conclusion that is not based on scientific examination   

B. A mere speculation of facts contained in the document

C. A scientific findings as to the content of a document

D. All of these


28. It is a kind of handwriting that is characterized by being connected in which one letter is joined to the next.

A. Script

B. Block

C. Vigorous

D. Cursive  


29. A writer may deliberately try to alter his usual writing habits to hide his identity. The results, regardless of their effectiveness are termed as ___.

A. Downstroke

B. Gestalt

C. Disguised writing   

D. Graphology


30. The place where the writer grasps the barrel of the pen and the angle at which he holds it is called

A. Pen lift

B. Pen hold   

C. Print script

D. Pen pressure


31. The element of the writing movement is marked by regular or periodic recurrences. It may be classed as smooth, intermittent, or jerky in its quality.

A. Shading

B. Simplification

C. Slope slant

D. Rhythm   


32. What do we call the series of lines or curves written in a single letter; one of the lines of an alphabet or the series of lines or curves within a single letter; the path traced by the pen on the paper?

A. Pen lift

B. Slope

C. Delta

D. Stroke   


33. These are quite simply writings that were indisputably prepared by the accused when he had no reason to think that they would be used for a handwriting comparison. 

A. Non-request Standards

B. Requested standards

C. Disguised

D. None of the Above


34. The act/process of making the content/s of a document, not the intended content.

A. falsification   

B. counterfeiting

C. forgery

D. erasure


35. The study of handwriting to determine one's personality traits is called

A. handwriting analysis

B. graphology   

C. dactyloscopy

D. fecalysis


36. Who studied fear and its influence on the heart and his observations subsequently formed the basis for the technique in the development of the sphygmomanometer and the scientific cradle, which he used in studying fear on the heart?

A. Cesare Lombroso

B. Angelo Mosso   

C. William Marston

D. John Larson


37. Who employed the first scientific instrument to detect deception? This instrument known as hydrosphygmograph, measured changes in pulse and blood pressure when suspects were questioned about their involvement in or knowledge of a specific response.

A. Cesare Lombroso   

B. Angelo Mosso

C. William Marston

D. John Larson


38. It is a scientific diagnostic instrument used to record physiological changes in the blood pressure, pulse rate, respiration, and skin resistance of an examinee under controlled conditions.

A. Lie detection

B. Polygraph   

C. Polygraph examination

D. Truth serum


39. Any untruthful statement; falsehood; or anything that deceives or creates a false impression.

A. Joke

B. Story

C. Telling

D. Lie   


40. “Hindu Book of Health and Science” is considered the earliest known reference of the methods for detecting deception.

A. Hindu Yoga

B. Ayur-Veda   

C. Arya Abram

D. Midos Yagu


41. The science and art of improving human breeds by applying the ascertained principles of genetics and inheritance to secure a desirable combination of physical characteristics and mental traits in the offspring of suitably mated parents?

A. Genetics

B. Eugenics   

C. Metabolism

D. Psycho Synthesis


42. In polygraph examination, the whole chart when finished is called

A. result

B. polygram   

C. analysis

D. diagnostic


43. The major components of the polygraph machine are, except

A. Pneumograph 

B. Pen and Inking System

C. Galvanograph

D. Kymograph


44. “Did you shoot Mr X?” is an example of __ in polygraph examination.

A. Control question

B. Relevant question

C. Irrelevant question

D. Evidence connecting question


45. Which of the following questions asked in a polygraph examination may be considered an irrelevant question?

A. Have you ever been called by the name Allan?

B. Is today Monday?

C. Are you over 20 years of age?

D. All of the above   


46. A type of print pattern that consists of two separate loop formations with two separate and distinct sets of shoulders and two deltas.

A. Central pocket loop whorl

B. Plain whorl

C. Double Loop Whorl

D. Plain whorl


47. The individuality of a fingerprint is not determined by its general shape or pattern but by a careful study of its ridge characteristics also known as 

A. Minutiae

B. Core

C. Furrow

D. Shoulder


48. A principle involved in fingerprinting states that there are no two fingerprints that are exactly alike unless taken from the same finger.

A. Permanency

B. Individuality   

C. Infallibility

D. Generality


49. The biggest percentage of fingerprint patterns is

A. Arches 

B. Loops    

C. Whorls

D. Accidentals


50. It is symbolized by the letter X in the fingerprint classification.

A. Ulnar Loop

B. Plain arch

C. Accidental whorl   

D. Tented arch


51. The reasons why fountain pen ink, colored ink, and stamp pad are objectionable are, except

A. They are too thin

B. They dry too quickly

C. The stamp pad smears easily

D. Satisfactory for comparison purposes  


52. These are fingerprints that are imprinted by mere chance or without any intention to produce the print.  

A. Chance print

B. Chance impression   

C. Visible print

D. Latent print


53. If a finger appears to be amputated (cut off) just place the symbol or simple abbreviation as _______ and the date of amputation on the box of the finger actually amputated.

A. AMP   

B. AMPT

C. APT

D. AMPUT


54. Which has been known as the circulating tissue of the body?

A. Brain

B. Skin

C. Mucus membrane 

D. None of these   


55. The yellowish fluid of blood in which numerous blood corpuscles are called

A. Serum

B. Plasma   

C. Red cells

D. Cloth


56. To facilitate the evaluation and interpretation of test charts, markings are made with the use of signs and symbols. Which of the following examples of chart markings should be the first marking of the examiner in the chart?

A. X /60 / 1.5 A   

B. XX / 60 / 1.5 A

C. X                     

D. XX


57. This test is applied when the responses to relevant and control questions are similar in degree and consistency and in a way that the examiner cannot determine whether the subject is telling the truth or not.

A. Silent answer test

B. Peak of tension test

C. Guilt complex test   

D. General question test


58. The process of recording fingerprints through the use of fingerprint ink.            

A.    Pathology          

B.    Fingerprinting          

C.    Dactyloscopy          

D.    Printing press 


59. The fingerprint method of identification.          

A.    Pathology          

B.    Fingerprinting          

C.    Dactyloscopy          

D.    Printing press


60. Two lines that run parallel or nearly parallel, diverge and surround the pattern area.            

A.    Ridges          

B.    Delta          

C.    Type line          

D.    Bifurcation


61. A part of the whorl or loop in which the cores, deltas, and ridges appear.          

A.    type line          

B.    bifurcation          

C.    pattern area          

D.    furrow 


62. Fingerprints left on various surfaces at the crime scene which are not clearly visible.           

A.    plane impressions          

B.    visible fingerprints          

C.    rolled impressions          

D.    latent fingerprints 


63. The impressions left by the patterns of ridges and depressions on various surfaces.             

A.    kiss marks          

B.    finger rolls           

C.    thumb marks          

D.    fingerprints 


64. Which among the following is not considered a basic fingerprint pattern?            

A.    Arch          

B.    Accidental          

C.    Loop          

D.    Whorl


65. The minimum identical characteristics to justify the identity between two points.             

A.    Eighteen          

B.    Fifteen          

C.    Twelve          

D.    Nine


66. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a sequence of spirals around core axes.          

A.    whorl          

B.    double loop          

C.    central pocket loop          

D.    accidental


67. A fingerprint pattern in which one or more ridges enter on either side of the impression by a recurve, and terminate on the same side where the ridge has entered.             

A.    Loop          

B.    radial loop          

C.    ulnar loop          

D.    tented arch


68. A person who gives his/her opinion or conclusion on a given scientific evidence is considered          

A. interrogator          

B. expert witness          

C. prosecutor          

D. judge


69. The application of scientific knowledge and techniques in the detection of crime and apprehension of criminals.            

A. Law Enforcement Administration          

B. Forensic Administration          

C. CriminaThe normal developing time of a paper or film                 

D. Criminalistics  


70. Lens that is characterized by a thicker center and thinner sides.          

A. concave lens          

B. convex lens          

C. negative lens          

D. positive lens 


71. The normal developing time of a paper or film.          

A. 30-60 minutes          

B. 20-30  minutes          

C. 5-10 minutes          

D. 1- 2 minutes 


72. This part of a camera is used to allow light to enter the lens for a predetermined time interval.          

A. holder of sensitized material          

B. viewfinder          

C. shutter          

D. finder 


73. A lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal of its negative material.          

A. telephoto lens          

B. long lens           

C. normal lens          

D. wide-angle lens


74. Chemical used as an accelerator in a developer solution.          

A. Potassium Bromide          

B. Sodium Carbonate              

C. Sodium Sulfite          

D. Hydroquinone


75. A part of a camera is used to focus the light from the subject.          

A. viewfinder          

B. lens          

C. shutter          

D. light-tight box


76. A component of the polygraph instrument that records the breathing of the subject.          

A. Cardiosphygmograph          

B. Pneumograph          

C. Galvanograph          

D. Kymograph


77. A component of the polygraph instrument that records the blood pressure and the pulse rate of the subject.          

A. Cardiosphygmograph          

B. Pneumograph          

C. Galvanograph          

D. Kymograph


78. What type of QD examination is best used in dealing with charred documents?

A. Ultra-violet light

B. Infrared light 

C. Oblique light

D. Transmitted light


79. Which principle states that every contact leaves a trace?

A. Locard's Exchange Principle

B. Principle of Uniformity

C. Principle of Exclusion

D. Chain of Custody Principle


80.  Is your mother's name Magdalena? is what kind of question?

A. Relevant

B. Irrelevant

C. Control 

D. General Question


81. The first portable instrument precisely measures muzzle velocity and striking power.

A. Ejector

B. Caliper

C. Chronograph

D. Extractor


82. What are the canals of depression found between ridges called?

A. Pores

B. Furrows

C. Island

D. Ridges


83. What is forensic science primarily concerned with?

A. Solving mathematical problems

B. Applying science to legal issues

C. Writing crime novels

D. Designing laboratory equipment


84. Used to see stains on clothes that are invisible to a normal light.

A. X-ray

B. Infrared light

C. UV light

D. Visible light


85. The following are preliminary blood tests, except.

A. Benzidine

B. Luminous

C. Phenolphthalein

D. Takayama


86. Regarded as a special form of pen lift disguise in which a perceptible group appears in the writing.

A. Diacritic

B. Hiatus

C. Hesitation

D. Tremor


87. It is the ridge count of the first loop pattern appearing on the fingerprint card except for the two little fingers.

A. Primary classification

B. Secondary classification

C. Final Classification

D. Key classification


88. The study of how a projectile behaves when it hits its target and transfers its kinetic energy to the target.

A. Interior Ballistics

B. Exterior Ballistics

C. Terminal Ballistics

D. Shot Ballistics


89. Covers the surface of the dermis with a blunt peg-like formation.

A. Epidermis

B. Sweat pores

C. Dermal papillae

D. Sweat gland


90: What physiological parameter is primarily recorded by the lower pen in the polygraph machine?

A. Blood pressure

B. Pulse wave amplitude

C. Electro-dermal variation

D. Respiratory rate


91. During the rolled impression, both thumbs are rolled _____.

A. Away from the body

B. Toward the body

C. Both A and B

D. Side of the body


92. A principle in fingerprints states that the ridge patterns on the digits never change during the life of an individual.

A. Principle of Permanency

B. Principle of Individuality

C. Principle of Infallibility

D. Principle of Lividity


93. Which lens type provides an image that approximates the human eye's perspective?

A. Wide-angle lens

B. Telephoto lens

C. Normal lens

D. Macro lens


94. Which domestic discipline deals with bite mark analysis?

A. Forensic odontology

B. Forensic anthropology

C. Forensic pathology

D. Forensic entomology


95. What is the primary focus of forensic entomology?

A. Studying insects to determine the time of death

B. Analyzing soil samples from crime scenes

C. Examining bones for identification purposes

D. Detecting toxins in blood samples


96.  A gunsmith is examining a firearm and wants to determine the bore diameter by measuring the distance from the highest points inside the barrel. What is this measurement called?

A. Calibre

B. Mean Diameter

C. Gauge

D. Rifling


97. This refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior surface of the bore.

A. Swaging

B. Ogive

C. Rifling

D. Breaching


98. It is the process of the bullet entering the barrel and being squeezed to conform to the rifling.

A. Swaging

B. Ogive

C. Rifling

D. Bleaching


99. It is a pointed, curved surface mainly used to form the approximately streamlined nose of a bullet or other projectile, reducing air resistance or the drag of air.

A. Swaging

B. Ogive

C. Rifling

D. Bleaching


100. Which of these is caused by the flames or hot gases rather than the hot projectiles as is commonly believed and is known as charring?

A. Blackening

B. Tattooing

C. Scorching

D. Pink coloration


Criminology Review Questions

Criminal Law And Jurisprudence Review Questions


Answer:

1. A

2. C

3. C

4. D

5. B

6. D

7. D

8. D

9. C

10. B

11. C

12. C

13. C

14. A

15. D

16. A

17. B

18. C

19. B

20. B

21. A

22. B

23. C

24. Reflex Camera

25. A

26. A

27. A

28. D

29. C

30. B

31. D

32. D

33. A

34. A

35. B

36. B

37. A

38. B

39. D

40. B
41. B
42. B
43. B
44. B

45. D

46. C

47. A

48. B

49. B

50. C

51. D

52. B

53. A

54. D

55. B

56. A

57. D

58. B

59. C

60. C

61. C

62. D

63. D

64. B

65. D

66. A

67. C

68. B

69. D

70.  A

71.  C

72.  C

73.  A

74. B

75. B

76. B

77.  A

78. B

79. A

80. B

81. C

82. B

83. B

84. C

85. D

86. C

87. D

88. C

89. C

90. A

91. B

92. A

93. C

94. A

95. A

96. A

97. C

98. A

99. B

100. C

Law Enforcement Administration Review Questions 2 (LEA)

On

 Law Enforcement Administration Review Questions 2 

(Answers are provided below)


1. Registration of a security agency as a corporation must be processed at which particular government agency?             

A. PNP SAGSD             

B. NAPOLCOM              

C. DND            

D. SEC                                                   


2. Minimum age requirement for a security manager or operator of a security agency.             

A. 25 years old             

B. 30 years old             

C. 35 years old             

D. 40 years old                                      


3. He exercises the power to revoke for cause licenses issued to security guards.             

A. Chief PNP             

B. DILG Usec             

C. NAPOLCOM chairman             

D. DILG Secretary                                  


4. Refers to a natural or man-made structure that is capable of delaying illegal access to the facility.       

A. Wall             

B. Fence             

C. Barriers             

D. Beachfronts                                      


5. It refers to the means and ways that personnel and employees make their security conscious.             

A. Security Promotion             

B. Security Education             

C. Security Investigation 

D. Security Seminar                                


6. Industrial management must establish the first line of physical defense, it refers to             

A. Perimeter barriers             

B. The building itself             

C. Door, Locks, Window barriers             

D. Entry points where security guards are located        


7. Physical security is a system of barriers placed between the potential intruder and the object to be protected. As criminologists, this is simply a denial of             

A. Opportunity to commit the offense             

B. Opportunity to the object of protection             

C. Access to the object of protection             

D. Criminal instinct to surface in the potential offender 


8. The Weakest link in the security chain.             

A. Security Guards             

B. Manager             

C. Barriers             

D. Personnel                                          


9. Perimeter barriers, protective lighting, and ______ systems are known in industrial security as physical security.             

A. Guarding             

B. Reporting             

C. Relieving             

D. Accounting  

                                       

10. This is an additional outward inclined fixed structure, usually barbed wires placed above a vertical fence to increase physical protection from intruders in a certain area. This is known as             

A. Cellar Guard             

B. Tower Guard             

C. Top Guard             

D. Top Tower                                          


11. A license to exercise a security profession may be renewed within how many days before the expiry date?

A. 15 days

B. 30 days

C. 45 days

D. 60 days


12. An armored security vehicle shall have a minimum of how many crew, including the security driver?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5


13. Berto and Gina are both Police Officers, and they only received an order from Billy, their superior. This pertains to __________.

A. Span of Control

B. Unity of Command

C. Delegation of Authority

D. Time in Grade


14. Berto wanted to organize his own security agency. What government agency would he register the trade name of his security agency with?

A. DTI

B. SEC

C. PADPAO

D. PNP-CSG


15. When can a security guard arrest a person?

A. Anytime they suspect illegal activity

B. Only under Section, Rule 113 of the Revised Rules of Criminal Procedure

C. When given verbal permission by the establishment owner

D. Whenever they see a crime happening


16. The highest award given to PNP members.

A. Medalya ng Katapatan

B. Medalya ng Kagitingan

C. Medalya ng Karunungan

D. Medalya ng Kabayanihan


17. It is the obligation to do something. It is the duty that one has to perform in the organizational tasks, functions, and assignments.

A. Command

B. Responsibility

C. Authority

D. Accountability


18. Moral courage to sacrifice self-interest in keeping with the time-honored principle of ________.

A. Delikadeza

B. Pakikisama

C. Balikatan

D. None of the above


19. If the national flag is displayed from a window sill, roof, canopy, balcony, or facade of a building, the staff shall project __________.

A. Wayward

B. Downward

C. Upward

D. Sideward


20. Means a list of persons qualified to provide ADR services as neutrals or to serve as arbitrators.

A. Panel

B. Arbitrators party

C. Roster

D. List of Arbitrators


21. Which kind of patriotism includes military service and other forms of self-sacrifice?

A. Patriotism of Duty

B. Patriotism of Affection

C. Patriotism of Manners

D. All of the Above


22. It is also known as Character Building.

A. Neutral Character

B. Negative Character

C. Character Formation

D. Positive Character


23. Which is the correct abbreviation of the PNP rank of Police Lieutenant Colonel?

A. PLT

B. P-LTCOL

C. PLTCOL

D. P/LT/COL


24. Which of the following types of locks is generally used in car doors?

A. Warded lock

B. Disc tumbler lock

C. Lever lock

D. Combination lock


25. What line of defense describes storage systems such as steel cabinets, locks, safes, vaults, and interior file rooms?

A. First line of defense

B. Second line of defense

C. Third line of defense

D. Fourth line of defense


26. Any PNP personnel who have not been promoted for a continuous period of __________ shall be retired or separated.

A. 5 years

B. 7 years

C. 10 years

D. 15 years


27. The theory of a police service states that police officers are servants of the people or the community.

A. Old Concept

B. Modern Concept

C. Home Rule Theory

D. Continental Theory


28. An attitude of "What goes around, comes around," or come what may.

A. Crab mentality

B. Hospitality

C. Fatalism

D. Mañana Habit 


29. This is the Filipino habit of leaving for tomorrow what can be done today.

A. Procrastination

B. Crab Mentality

C. Lack of Self-Discipline

D. Bahala na Attitude


30. Filipinos tend to possess this mentality, especially when they feel insecure.

A. Procrastination

B. Crab Mentality

C. Lack of Self-Discipline

D. Bahala na Attitude


31. Filipinos tend to possess this mentality, especially when they feel insecure. Instead of doing things that could help them develop and become better than their competitors, Filipinos devote much of their time to gossiping and backbiting. 

A. Procrastination

B. Crab Mentality

C. Lack of Self-Discipline

D. Bahala na Attitude


32. It is where the leader holds final responsibility, but he or she is known to delegate authority to other people, who determine work projects.

A. Autocratic leadership

B. Democratic leadership

C. Transformational leadership

D. Visionary leadership


33. What is the principle of organization suggesting that communication should go upward and downward through established channels?

A. Chain of command

B. Span of Control

C. Unity of Command

D. Delegation of Authority


34. A PNP uniformed personnel who has been relieved for just cause and has not been given an assignment within 2 years after such relief shall be __________.

A. Suspended

B. Retired or Separated

C. Reinstated

D. Reappointed


35. What is the optional retirement age for officers in the police service?

A. 15. years

B. 25 years

C. 30 years

D. 20 years


36. Flag lowering shall be conducted __________.

A. Every Tuesday

B. Every Monday Afternoon

C. Every Friday Afternoon

D. Every Afternoon at the end of the month


37. The following are included in the administrative or management functions, except:

A. Organizing

B. Directing

C. Controlling

D. Recording


38. The flag shall be replaced __________ when it begins to show signs of wear and tear.

A. Upon approval

B. Within the day

C. Within 24 hours

D. Immediately


39. Hierarchy of authority, which is the order of ranks from the highest to the lowest levels of the organization, is known as __________.

A. Scalar chain

B. Unity of command

C. Line of Authority

D. Chain of command


40. What law enforcement agency is responsible for the protection and preservation of maritime resources?

A. PNP Maritime Command

B. PCG

D. BFAR

D. Philippine Navy


41. It has 195 member countries, making it the world's largest police organization.

A. INTERPOL

B. ASEANAPOL

C. EUROPOL

D. None of the Above


42. Hugo believes that leaders are born and not developed. What leadership theory does he believe in?

A. Behavioral

B. Great Man

C. Trait

D. Transactional


43. This theory of leadership is based on the belief that great leaders are made, not born.

A. Behavioral

B. Great Man

C. Trait

D. Transactional


44. It is the detailed examination, including risk evaluation and risk management alternatives, performed to understand the nature of unwanted negative consequences to human life, health, property, or the environment.

A. Risk assessment

B. Security Incident

C. Security Vulnerability

D. Risk analysis


45. What is the primary function of intelligence operations in law enforcement?

A. Promote police-citizen interaction

B. Increase the number of arrests

C. Enhance the probability of accuracy in report writing

D. Improve administrative efficiency


46. What is the oldest and premier investigation agency in the Philippines?

A. PNP

B. DOJ

C. NBI

D. NICA


47. An organization's structure is considered adequate if it facilitates the achievement of its goals at the lowest possible cost.

A. Principle of Unity of Objectives

B. Principle of Organizational Efficiency

C. Span of Control

D. Unity of Command


48. This defines the fundamental principles governing the PNP's rules of conduct, attitude, behavior, and ethical norms.

A. Ethics

B. Values

C. Ethical Standard

D. Ethical Doctrines


49. The principle of organization suggests that communications should ordinarily go upward through established channels in the hierarchy.

A. Chain of Command

B. Unity of Command

C. Span of Control

D. Delegation of Authority


50. An organizational process concerned with implementing objectives, plans, and internal operating efficiency.

A. Management

B. Police Organization

C. Organizational Structure

D. Administration


51. It supervises the licensing and registration of firearms and explosives.

A. Finance Center

B. Civil Security Unit

C. Maritime  Unit

D. Police Intelligence Unit


52. What is the term for the work programs of line divisions related to workload and resources?

A. Administrative plan

B. Operational plan

C. Strategic plan

D. Tactical plan


53. In S.W.O.T analysis, W stands for?

A. Waiver

B. Winless

C. Vulnerabilities

D. Winning


54. These involve the installation of physical barriers, security lighting, use of vaults, locks, and others.

A. Passive measures

B. Active measures

C. Combined

D. Perimeter barrier


55. The premier educational institution for training commissioned officers in the BJMP.

A.  PNPA                       

B.  PCCR    

C.  PNTC

D.  PPSA


56. The premier educational institution for training commissioned officers in the BFP.

A.  PNPA                       

B.  PCCR    

C.  PNTC

D.  PPSC 


57. It is the proper utilization of resources in a security organization to meet organizational goals and objectives and to ensure their achievements.

A. Security management

B. Security planning

C. Security development

D. Security progress


58. It is the unwritten authority given to police officers to make decisions, using their own judgment based on justice and fairness.

A. Negotiation

B. Discretion

C. Arraignment

D. Plea bargaining


59. Which management theory structures organizations in a hierarchy to have a clear governance rule?

A. Bureaucratic

B. Systems

C. Administrative

D. Scientific


60. It refers to the susceptibility of the establishment to a particular risk.

A. Relative criticality

B. Relative vulnerability

C. Relative culpability

D. None of the above


61. In police management, which process involves the division of work to be done and coordinating results to achieve a desired purpose?

A. Controlling

B. Planning

C. Organizing

D. Staffing


62. Which organizational principle implies a system of varied functions arranged into a workable pattern?

A. Unity of objectives

B. Authority level

C. Organizational balance

D. Line and Staff


63. What is the term for uprightness in character and soundness or moral principles?

A. Integrity

B. Loyalty

C. Discretion

D. Moral


64. Which type of patrol performs specific, predetermined preventive strategies regularly?

A. Split-force patrol

B. Low visibility patrol

C. Apprehension-oriented

D. Directed deterrent patrol


65. Is keeping those to whom the executive is responsible informed of what is going on, which thus includes keeping himself and his subordinates informed through records research and inspection.

A. Reporting

B. Budgeting

C. Coordinating

D. Directing


66. What is the term for the proclamation issued by King Richard requiring the appointment of knights to keep the king's peace?

A. Statute of Winchester

B. Bow-street runners

C. Keepers of the peace

D. The Charlies


67. What is the term for the system of mutual protection developed during the Middle Ages?

A. Frankpledge

B. Sheriff

C. Traveling Judge

D. The Hue and Cry


68. PGen Benjamin Acorda Jr. is the 29th Chief of the Philippine National Police. What principle applies when he is in command of the entire organization?

A. Chain of Command

B. Delegation of authority

C. Principle of Unity

D. Unity of command


69. Kuting is known for her natural charisma and confidence. Her presence energizes and motivates her team, and she easily gains their trust and loyalty. Which leadership theory best explains Kuting's effectiveness as a leader?

A. Transformational Leadership Theory

B. Trait Theory

C. Transactional Leadership Theory

D. Path-Goal Theory


70. Mobility and stealth are an advantage of ...

A. Bicycle patrol

B. Foot patrol

C. Mobile patrol

D. Motorcycle patrol


71. Dugung often takes charge in group situations, making decisions without consulting others. He frequently exaggerates his accomplishments to impress people, and his approach to leadership involves asserting control even when his input isn't needed. He often puts himself first and expects everyone to follow his lead. Which character trait is being portrayed by Dugung?

A. Complacent Character

B. Superstitious Character

C. Self-Realized Character

D. Egoistic/Bossy/Tall-talker Character


72. It is a general statement of intention and typically results in a project with a time horizon of a year or more.

A. Plan

B. Research

C. Goal

D. Objective


73. In what way does the Principle of Unity of Objectives impact organizational performance?

A. By promoting conflict among employees

B. By hindering communication within the organization

C. By enabling individuals to align their efforts with the organization's objectives

D. By discouraging employee engagement


74. Which statistical methods compare the means of two samples?

A. Chi-square

B. Pearson correlation

C. T-test

D. ANOVAP


75. The NBI is under the administrative supervision of what department?

A. DILG

B. DOJ

C. Office of the President

D. Department of National Defense


76. In SARA model, it involves identifying persistent problems that cause harm and call for police attention.

A. Scanning

B. Analysis

C. Response

D. Assessment


77. Police Colonel Marcos visited Japan to collaborate with his counterparts on some research to be used in the PNP. Which comparative method of policing studies did he apply?

A. Safari

B. Collaborative

C. Qualitative

D. Quantitative


78. Bar Exam retakers can top the bar; Can a retaker top the Criminology Licensure Examination?

A. Yes

B. No

C. Maybe

D. Yes, but with a condition


79. A policing strategy that addresses crime by assigning police resources to areas where crimes are more highly concentrated.

A. Community-Oriented Policing System

B. Hot-Spot Policing

C. Third Party Policing

D. Neighborhood Policing


80. A voice of reasoning bidding oneself to avoid evil and do good.

A. Virtue

B. Dignity

C. Conscience

D. Value


81. In a relationship between security personnel and PNP, Security personnel must always be:

A. Equal in authority to the PNP

B. Subordinate to the PNP 

C. Independent from the PNP

D. Given the same powers as the PNP


82. It is the world's oldest and largest nonprofit membership organization for police executives, with over 20,000 members in more than 100 countries.

A. Interpol

B. ASEANAPOL

C. EUROPOL

D. IACP


83. The UN Security Council is composed of how many permanent members?

A. 3

B. 5

C. 7

D. 10


84. What is the maximum duration for a Duty Detail Order (DDO) not requiring transport of firearms outside the property?

A. 15 days

B. 30 days

C. 45 days

D. 60 days


85. Which of the following choices below is true in terms of the Chief PNP's terms of office?

A. Not to exceed 9 months

B. Not to exceed 6 years

C. not to exceed 4 years

D. Not to exceed 6 months


86. The membership of a country in the United Nations (UN) is decided by the

A. International Court of Justice

B. Secretariat

C. General Assembly

D. Economic and Social Council


87. The term used in England for lock pickers, safe crackers, and penetrators of restricted areas and rooms.

A. Peterman

B. Pick Lockers

C. Thug

D. Peterpan


88. The following are the official languages of the Interpol, except:

A. Spanish, Arabic

B. French

C. Chinese

D. English


89. In a relationship between security personnel and PNP, Security personnel must always be:

A. Equal in authority to the PNP

B. Subordinate to the PNP

C. Independent from the PNP

D. Given the same power as the PNP


90. Digong is a lock picker, and he has a key that can open a group of locks within a particular area. As a Criminologist, what type of keys did the former have?

A. Change key

B. Sub master key

C. Grand master key

D. Master key


91. Currently, INTERPOL has 196 member countries. Which country is the newest member or the 196th member?

A. Thailand

B. Myanmar

C. Philippines

D. Palau


92. The following are stages of Money Laundering except:

A. Placement

B. Layering

C. Integration

D. Accumulation


93. Is keeping those to whom the executive is responsible informed as to what is going on, which thus includes keeping himself and his subordinates informed through records research and inspection.

A. Reporting

B. Budgeting

C. Coordinating

D. Directing


94. S.M.E.A.C in arrest abbreviation, What is M.E.A?

A. Management, Exercise, Action

B. Mission, Execution, Administration

C. Must, Exercise, Action

D. None of the above


95. Shows the vertical hierarchy of the organization, which defines an unbroken chain of units from top to bottom, describing explicitly the flow of authority.

A. Chain of Command

B. Span of Control

C. Scalar Principle

D. Principle of Command and Responsibility


96. A mechanical, electrical, hydraulic, or electronic device designed to prevent entry into a building, room, container, or hiding place, and to prevent the removal of items without the consent of the owner.

A. Padlocks

B. Code Operated

C. Locks

D. Combination Locks


97. Division of work according to type, place, time, and specialization.

a. Functional principle

b. Line and staff

c. Principle of balance

d. Principle of delegation by results


98. System of varied functions arranged into a workable pattern. The line organization is responsible for the direct accomplishment of the objectives, while the staff is responsible for support, advisory, or facilitative capacity.

a. Functional principle

b. Line and staff

c. Principle of balance

d. Principle of delegation by results


99. The Philippine national flag shall be hoisted to the top and lowered ______.

A. Briskly

B. Fastly

C. Solemnly

D. Ceremoniously


100. S.M.E.A.C in arrest abbreviation, what is C?

A. Cooperation

B. Conduct

C. Command/Control

D. Cops


Crime Detection And Investigations Review Questions


Criminology Review Questions


Answers:

1. D

2. A

3. A

4. C

5. B

6. A

7. C

8. D

9. A

10. C

11. D

12. B

13. B

14. A

15. D

16. B

17. B

18. A

19. C

20 C

21. A

22. C

23. C

24. B

25. C

26. C

27. C

28. C

29. A

30. B

31. B

32. B

33. A

34. B

35. D

36. C

37. D

38. D

39. D

40. B

41. A

42. A

43. B

44. D

45. B

46. C

47. B

48. D

49. A

50. D

51. B

52. B

53. C (Weakness)

54. B

55. D

56. D

57. A

58. B

59. A

60. B

61. C

62. D

63. A

64. D

65. A

66. C

67. A

68. A

69. B

70. A

71. D

72. C

73. C

74. C

75. B

76. A

77. A

78. B

79. B

80. C

81. B

82. D - International Association of Chiefs of Police.

83. B

84. B

85. C

86. C

87. A

88. C

89. B

90. D

91. D

92. D

93. A

94. B - SMEAC - situation, mission, execution, administration/logistics/Equipment, Command/Signal

95. C

96. C The other options are specific types of locks

97. A

98. B

99. C

100. C

First PNP Female General PBGen. Yolanda G. Tanigue

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first pnp female general

First PNP Female General PBGen. Yolanda G. Tanigue

The Philippine National Police's first female police general, PBGen. Yolanda G. Tanigue has dedicated her career to advocating for the rights of women and children, having founded the PNP Women and Children Protection Center. 


Fondly known as “Aleng Pulis,” she finished an M.A. in Criminology (1986) and a Ph.D. in Criminology (1997) from PCCR. Starting her career as a social worker, she rose through the ranks and played a vital role in shaping policies for vulnerable sectors.


In honor of National Women's Month 2025, with the theme "Babae sa Lahat ng Sektor, Aangat ang Bukas sa Bagong Pilipinas," PCCR proudly highlights its outstanding alumnae who have made a lasting impact in criminology, public service, education, and beyond. Join us as we celebrate their achievements and contributions throughout March! 


Read more about PCCR's 7-decade history and its outstanding alumni in "A Legacy of Excellence, Pioneering 70 Years of Criminal Justice Education" coffee table book available at PCCR's Retail Store (Open M-F, 8am-5pm)


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